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Jesus Christ?

max



Unfortunately, your original point was:



As to your new point, nobody here has disputed that the Babylonian Talmud includes several references to what may be "alternative Jesus" figures, among them a possible contemporary of Alexander Jannaeus. However, that would, if the uncertainties surrounding those passages were resolved most favorably to your view, at best show the existence and transmission of Jewish stories through Jewish channels about such figures, not Christian belief or sources for them.

On the possibility of suitable Jewish channels stemming from or running through the Fourth Century, Epiphanius can certainly be cited as a witness to hostile relations between Christians and Jews during his lifetime, broadly distributed. He recites a lengthy, big-canvas, lurid tale on point that he was supposedly told by the Jewish convert Josephus of Tiberias (mentioned in passing here at post 106, see Panarion Book I, part 30, sections 4 and following).

It is easy to imagine Jewish counterapologetic tales flourishing in the same milieu as gave birth to this Josephus of Tiberias story. There is no reason why some of those same Jewish tales might not also be found some generations later in the Babylonian Talmud. However, there is also no reason to think that the Babylonian Talmud, so interpreted, accurately reflects the view of any Christian of any century about Jesus' life. Nor does Epiphanius offer support for such thinking.

Sigh, it would help if you would read the points brought up:

"More astonishing still is the widespread Jewish and Jewish-Christian tradition, attested in Epiphanius, the Talmud, and the Toledoth Jescji (dependent on second-century Jewish-Christian gospel), that Jesus was born about 100 BCE and was crucified under Alexander Jannaeus! " Price, Robert (2003) Incredible Shrinking Son of Man pg 40)

Price expressly states the idea that Jewish-Christian sects held that "Jesus was born about 100 BCE and was crucified under Alexander Jannaeus" and this point is supported by Epiphanius, the Talmud, and the Toledoth Jescji. Price brings up this very same point in The Historical Jesus: Five Views pg 80 and NONE of the other four people involved in that work challenge him on this point.
 
Anyone can be wrong, including Price. Heck, even Einstein was wrong about the cosmological constant in his own GR. In fact, every scientist who ever lived was, technically, wrong. I don't see why Price would be exempt from the occasional error.

That is, unless he can show how he supports that. I dunno, he may be able to show that some paragraphs are later interpolations, or whatever.

But since you're the one who quotes his book, and I don't have it, I'll have to ask you to supply whatever relevant quotes there. But again, not just the conclusion. I want to see exactly how he reconciles it with the chronology the bishop of Salamis gives elsewhere.
 
Anyone can be wrong, including Price. Heck, even Einstein was wrong about the cosmological constant in his own GR. In fact, every scientist who ever lived was, technically, wrong. I don't see why Price would be exempt from the occasional error.

That is, unless he can show how he supports that. I dunno, he may be able to show that some paragraphs are later interpolations, or whatever.

But since you're the one who quotes his book, and I don't have it, I'll have to ask you to supply whatever relevant quotes there. But again, not just the conclusion. I want to see exactly how he reconciles it with the chronology the bishop of Salamis gives elsewhere.

The thing is it is not just Price that states this, remember?

"Both of the passages from Epiphanius are highly significant in terms of placing the nativity of Jesus back in the days of Alexander Jannaeus and Alexandra-Salome..." (Thomas, Michael (2011) Jesus 100 B.C. - Page 78)

"Perahia's pupil, relying on the support of Epiphanius, who sets the birth of Jesus in the reign of Alexander (Jannaeus) and Alexandra, that is, in the time of Ben Perahia or Ben Tabai." (Efrón, Joshua (1987) Studies on the Hasmonean Period - Brill Academic Pub Page 158)

"For, Epiphanius in the fourth century actually traces the pedigree of his Jesus the Christ to Pandira, who was the father of that Jehoshua who lived and died at least a century too soon to be the Christ of our Canonical Gospels." (Blavatsky, Helena Petrovna (1960) Collected writings, Volume 8 Philosophical Research Society.

Furthermore, Mead's book is accepted as a valid reference in The Historical Jesus: Five Views a 2009 Christian work edited by James K. Beilby, Paul R. Eddy and printed by InterVarsity Press

More over there are others:

"Jannaeus' crucifixion of eight hundred Pharisees left a particularly strong impression on the Jewish world...In this connection it is of interest that the dating of Jesus as a heretic who was put to death for misleading people about 100 BC, under Jannaeus, is 'one of the most persistent elements of the Jewish tradition concerning Jesus' and 'goes back to the floating mass of tradition' from which the Talmud drew. Mead allows that this dating may have originated as a result of controversy between orthodox Jews and Christians of Pauline type whose Christianity comprised a 'minimum of history and a maximum of opposition to Jewish legalism'." (Wells, George Albert (1975) Did Jesus Exist? Page 198)

"Epiphanius plumply asserts that Jesus ' was born in Bethlehem of Judaea in the days of Alexander, who was of high priestly and royal race.' (Alexander is Alexander Jannaeus, 104-78 B.C.) " (Carpenter, Joseph Estlin (1904) The first three Gospels: their origin and relations - Page 313)

"Yet the talmudic source places the flight of Jesus and his teacher in the time of King Alexander Jannaeus, who reigned from 103 to 76 B.C.E." (Schalom Ben-Chorin, Jared S. Klein, Robert J. Cottrol (2012) Brother Jesus: The Nazarene Through Jewish Eyes - Page 11)

"The author (Mead) compares the Christian tradition with the Jewish, and finds in the latter a reminiscence of a Jesus who lived in the time of Alexander Jannaeus (104-76 B.C.)." (SCHWEITZER, Albert (1910) Quest for the historical Jesus pg 327)

Work after work shows this passage exists as presented and with many stating it was part of the Jewish and-or Jewish-Christian traditions. This has been known for over a century so can we move on to why such a belief would have existed?
 
The question wasn't why would have it existed, nor whether elements of other potential Jesuseses would get mixed into the big story. I have no problem with the idea that it's a mosaic of bits and pieces from various other people. I just argued the last days that even some bits of the story of Herod's executed sons may (or may not) have found their way into our Jesus story. I have no problem with the story containing some bits of Alexander's crucifying a bunch of Pharisees.

I'm just asking exactly what paragraphs from Epiphanius support attributing that to a sect in his time, or to Epiphanius himself, and how does that deal with Epiphanius giving a different chronology elsewhere.

Because I've actually read part 29, "Against the Nazoreans", and Epiphanius doesn't seem to ascribe that as a heretical belief to the Nazoreans. Now I could be wrong too. (I know, I know, it will surely come as a shock to many;)) And Epiphanius's style is a bit muddy. But if you follow it up to 5:1, he makes it repeatedly clear that what he described up to that point are the Christians. He does make the confused identification of Philo's Jessaeans, i.e., Therapeutae, with Christians, but that's not the description of a heretical sect, but what he considers the proto-orthodoxy. Pretty much he considers the RCC to be the continuation of the proper Christians who were (in his deranged misunderstanding) the Therapeutae.

His actual treatment of the Nazoreans and what's wrong with them pretty much starts at 7:1, the way I read it. Until then he seems to just make a detour into describing what the proper Christians believe(d).

And he makes that detour because he sees the title used by two different groups. He sees both the proper Catholic Christians use the title Nazorean, going all the way back to Paul (cf Acts) and the apostles, AND this newfangled heretical group he writes against. So he first describes what the real Nazoreans (i.e., Catholics) are about, and around 7:1 he starts going into what's wrong with the sect calling themselves Nazoreans.

It's hard to even read it as forgetting to mention he was talking about Nazorean beliefs in chapter 3, since by 7 it's just not what he imputes those. His grief with the Nazoreans is that they still stick to Jewish traditions like circumcision, and apparently read Matthew in the original Hebrew. (Which is about as much nonsense as reading Hamlet in the original Klingon, but it seemed to be a common nonsense belief in his time.)

So now we have a problem.

I'm curious how do those authors you quote solve it. Not just their saying so. But what in the text they base it on.
 
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... Work after work shows this passage exists as presented and with many stating it was part of the Jewish and-or Jewish-Christian traditions. This has been known for over a century so can we move on to why such a belief would have existed?
What you can't do is base any discussion on the assumption that Epiphanius believed that Jesus lived in the days of Janneus, or that Epiphanius thought that such a belief was orthodox. He thought no such thing, and I don't care how many Blavatskys or Meads stated otherwise over a hundred years ago; nor am I impressed by lists of the names of their publishers.
 
What you can't do is base any discussion on the assumption that Epiphanius believed that Jesus lived in the days of Janneus, or that Epiphanius thought that such a belief was orthodox. He thought no such thing, and I don't care how many Blavatskys or Meads stated otherwise over a hundred years ago; nor am I impressed by lists of the names of their publishers.

Mead, Blavatsky, and all the rest do NOT say Epiphanius believed that Jesus lived during the time Alexander Jannaeus--only that he stated this point.

Claiming otherwise would be much like trying to say Albert Schweitzer's

"The Jesus of Nazareth who came forward publicly as the Messiah, who preached the ethic of the Kingdom of God, who founded the Kingdom of Heaven upon earth, and died to give His work its final consecration, never had any existence. He is a figure designed by rationalism, endowed with life by liberalism, and clothed by modern theology in an historical garb." (The Quest of the Historical Jesus, 1910 translation)

meant Schweitzer supported the Jesus didn't exist part of the Christ Myth theory when in reality he was pointing out so little is known of the actual man that Jesus has become an effective Tabula rasa--a blank slate on to which the researcher puts their own views--a point Price has agreed with.

The point is NOT whether Epiphanius believed that Jesus lived during the time Alexander Jannaeus but if what would become the Gospel Jesus existence was an actual historical fact why would there be any group of people putting him a full century early?

The Occam Razor's answer is the Gospel Jesus was in fact a legendary figure in the Robin Hood King Arthur mold ie effectively a composite character around which elaborate stories had been woven.

Looking for the "historical" Gospel Jesus is as meaningless as looking for the "historical" Robin Hood former Earl of Locksley or "historical" King Arthur Pendragon bastard son of Uther Pendragon and Lady Igraine--those versions are non-historical in that they never existed even if they are based on people who actually lived.

With "historical" candidates for Robin Hood and King Arthur Pendragon a full two centuries outside their traditional times what is so off the wall about a candidate for Jesus being a mere century before the time period the Gospels are set in?
 
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I may not be completely following this discussion Maximara, but as I understand it right now the theory that there was a group that believed that Jesus existed 100 years earlier hangs on a single sentence written by Epiphanius that suggests he believed that Jesus existed a 100 years earlier than the conventional time frame.

The problem with this seems to be that Epiphanius wrote other stuff that suggested he didn't question the conventional dating of Jesus.

The questions put to you on this, as I understand them are:
1. How do the people that claim Epiphanius believed that Jesus existed in a period 100 years earlier than he is conventionally dated to reconcile the single sentence that they point to as evidence for their view with the rest of the Epiphanius' writings?
2. What is the evidence beyond the single sentence of Epiphanius that there was a group of people that believed that Jesus existed 100 years earlier than the time frame in which he is conventionally dated?
 
...
It's hard to even read it as forgetting to mention he was talking about Nazorean beliefs in chapter 3, since by 7 it's just not what he imputes those. His grief with the Nazoreans is that they still stick to Jewish traditions like circumcision, and apparently read Matthew in the original Hebrew. (Which is about as much nonsense as reading Hamlet in the original Klingon, but it seemed to be a common nonsense belief in his time.)

...

Do you mean to imply here that you reject any possibility that some kind of Gospel like text existed in Hebrew that was used by the Jewish Christians? Or do you just mean to imply that a Hebrew version of the Gospel of Matthew that is known today didn't exist?
 
I'm saying that Matthew specifically was not written in Hebrew.

For a start, it would make no sense, because Hebrew was a dead liturgical language, somewhat like Latin is nowadays in Italy. The common folks living in Judaea would speak Aramaic, not Hebrew. The only ones who would even understand Hebrew at all were a minority of the Pharisees and maybe a few priests, i.e., probably under half a percent of the population.

Plus, Matthew makes mistakes that copied from the Septuagint version, i.e., the Greek translation. See, the virgin birth 'prophecy', Jesus riding on two donkeys, etc. There is no way that someone quoting those in either Aramaic or Hebrew could then conclude that the prophecy was fulfilled like Matthew fulfils it, because those texts didn't mean that in either language.

Look, let's put it like this:

- there are texts from that period that were written originally in Aramaic. Some of them are even religious. E.g., the Gospel Of The Hebrews. Matthew isn't one of those. Matthew was written in Greek.

- there are texts written originally in Klingon. E.g., the warrior's anthem. Some of those even touch on afterlife issues. See the same anthem. But Hamlet isn't one of those.

Hence the hopefully humorous analogy :p
 
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I may not be completely following this discussion Maximara, but as I understand it right now the theory that there was a group that believed that Jesus existed 100 years earlier hangs on a single sentence written by Epiphanius that suggests he believed that Jesus existed a 100 years earlier than the conventional time frame.

The problem with this seems to be that Epiphanius wrote other stuff that suggested he didn't question the conventional dating of Jesus.

The questions put to you on this, as I understand them are:
1. How do the people that claim Epiphanius believed that Jesus existed in a period 100 years earlier than he is conventionally dated to reconcile the single sentence that they point to as evidence for their view with the rest of the Epiphanius' writings?
2. What is the evidence beyond the single sentence of Epiphanius that there was a group of people that believed that Jesus existed 100 years earlier than the time frame in which he is conventionally dated?

Sigh, another comment that would have been avoid if people would READ what is provided rather than reaching for their keyboard when the mood hits them:

"More astonishing still is the widespread Jewish and Jewish-Christian tradition, attested in Epiphanius, the Talmud, and the Toledoth Jeschu (dependent on second-century Jewish-Christian gospel), that Jesus was born about 100 BCE and was crucified under Alexander Jannaeus! " Price, Robert (2003) Incredible Shrinking Son of Man pg 40)

This is NOT just Epiphanius but also in the Talmud and the Toledoth Jeschu. THREE SOURCES. The Toledoth Jeschu is interesting in that the text indicates that it can be no older than the 4th century though scholars regard it as being compiled between the 6th and 9th century with one of its sources being the Talmud. However various temporal markers in the text (as noted by Mead) put Jesus c100 BCE.

So again if Jesus' life was so well known why was this 100 BC origin floating around in the 4th century and reiterated some time in the 6th to 9th?
 
Do you mean to imply here that you reject any possibility that some kind of Gospel like text existed in Hebrew that was used by the Jewish Christians? Or do you just mean to imply that a Hebrew version of the Gospel of Matthew that is known today didn't exist?

In A&E's Who wrote the Bible (the episode of that name not the whole series and not Robert Beckford's show of the same name) that by the supposed time of Jesus Hebrew had effectively fell out of favor as "even though their religious text were still in Hebrew their home language had become entirely Greek"

Josheph Blankinsopp, Professor of Biblical Studies University of Notre Dame states "If you couldn't speak Greek by say the time of early Christianity you couldn't get a job. You wouldn't get a good job. a professional job. You had to know Greek in addition to your own language. And so you were getting to a point where Jews...the Jewish community in say Egypt and large cities like Alexandria didn't know Hebrew anymore they only knew Greek. And so you need a Greek version in the synagogue."

We are then told of the Septuagint (3rd century BCE) and Rabbi David Wolpe, lecturer at the University of Judaism explains why this was so important historically

So if Jews especially in the large cities didn't even know Hebrew why in the name of sanity would anyone with a brain in their head write a Gospel in Hebrew for them? That would be like in 2012 writing a major work in Latin for Roman Catholics and about as nonsensical.
 
Sigh, another comment that would have been avoid if people would READ what is provided rather than reaching for their keyboard when the mood hits them:

"More astonishing still is the widespread Jewish and Jewish-Christian tradition, attested in Epiphanius, the Talmud, and the Toledoth Jeschu (dependent on second-century Jewish-Christian gospel), that Jesus was born about 100 BCE and was crucified under Alexander Jannaeus! " Price, Robert (2003) Incredible Shrinking Son of Man pg 40)

This is NOT just Epiphanius but also in the Talmud and the Toledoth Jeschu. THREE SOURCES. The Toledoth Jeschu is interesting in that the text indicates that it can be no older than the 4th century though scholars regard it as being compiled between the 6th and 9th century with one of its sources being the Talmud. However various temporal markers in the text (as noted by Mead) put Jesus c100 BCE.

So again if Jesus' life was so well known why was this 100 BC origin floating around in the 4th century and reiterated some time in the 6th to 9th?

Could you point out what part of the Talmud refers to the Christian Jesus? My understanding of the situation is that the basis of the composite Jesus theory is that several characters described in the Talmud bare resemblances to the Christian Jesus. You seem to be claiming now that it has been proved that the composite Jesus theory is correct and that this provides proof that people in the third century believed that the Christian Jesus was born in 100 BC.

The problem here, as is similar to all other HJ theories, is that there isn't a hard fact to serve as a solid platform for the theory. Yes, the Christian Jesus stories might be based on an amalgam of characteristics of people that were described in the Talmud but where is the proof?

And if I understand your claims here you are also suggesting that since the composite theory is true that there were people who believed in the third century that the Christian Jesus existed in 100 BC. Even if the composite Jesus theory is correct it doesn't necessarily follow that in the third century a religion based on a 100BC Jesus existed.

And just to make it clear: I have no doubt that there are experts that argue for all sorts of Jesus theories. The questions that I and others have asked is what is the evidence that the experts you cite based their claims on?
 
Could you point out what part of the Talmud refers to the Christian Jesus? My understanding of the situation is that the basis of the composite Jesus theory is that several characters described in the Talmud bare resemblances to the Christian Jesus. You seem to be claiming now that it has been proved that the composite Jesus theory is correct and that this provides proof that people in the third century believed that the Christian Jesus was born in 100 BC.

The problem here, as is similar to all other HJ theories, is that there isn't a hard fact to serve as a solid platform for the theory. Yes, the Christian Jesus stories might be based on an amalgam of characteristics of people that were described in the Talmud but where is the proof?

And if I understand your claims here you are also suggesting that since the composite theory is true that there were people who believed in the third century that the Christian Jesus existed in 100 BC. Even if the composite Jesus theory is correct it doesn't necessarily follow that in the third century a religion based on a 100BC Jesus existed.

And just to make it clear: I have no doubt that there are experts that argue for all sorts of Jesus theories. The questions that I and others have asked is what is the evidence that the experts you cite based their claims on?

Well in sentence presented Price cites our old friend Mead as one of his sources and Did Jesus Live 100 B.C.? is public domain and available on the internet--at least part of the the answers you seek are there.
 
Necro, zombie, rigimortis, petrified, catatonic thread "resurrection" ;)

These junior threads are prolific and some of the same issues keep coming so often, I thought this is a good a thread as any to answer this incessant pounding of the 1st century junior date.

Could you point out what part of the Talmud refers to the Christian Jesus? My understanding of the situation is that the basis of the composite Jesus theory is that several characters described in the Talmud bare resemblances to the Christian Jesus. You seem to be claiming now that it has been proved that the composite Jesus theory is correct and that this provides proof that people in the third century believed that the Christian Jesus was born in 100 BC.



You will only find references to Yeshu ha-Notzri in the Babylonian Talmud. Of the four manuscripts only the Munich version has the ha-Notzri added to the Yeshu name.
Scholars generally translate it to meaning "Nazarene" though some do translate it as netzer (Hebrew for branch) or even Nazirite ( messianic title meaning consecrated/devoted). But that's a pissing match for another day.

It looks as though a scribe has gone through the old texts and inserted ha-Notzri to the old ben Stada and Yeshu "names" as a reaction/polemic to Christians.

A few entries that have inserted to ha-Notzri name are as follows;

b. Sanhedrin 103a
b. Ber. 17b
b. Sanhedrin 43
b. Sotha 47a


I think there are a few others as well. Check wiki for a complete list.



The problem here, as is similar to all other HJ theories, is that there isn't a hard fact to serve as a solid platform for the theory. Yes, the Christian Jesus stories might be based on an amalgam of characteristics of people that were described in the Talmud but where is the proof?

And if I understand your claims here you are also suggesting that since the composite theory is true that there were people who believed in the third century that the Christian Jesus existed in 100 BC. Even if the composite Jesus theory is correct it doesn't necessarily follow that in the third century a religion based on a 100BC Jesus existed.


I don't think you'll find any proof. Scholars are all over the map as to the references about junior in the Talmud. Hereford sees every Balaam, so & so, Yeshu, ben Stada, ben Pandira as a code name for junior. Which imo is ridiculous. That seems to be more of a believing scholar not facing (or being too biased to accept) the fact that junior was a mostly unknown/minor player that Judaism didn’t pay much if any attention to (at least initially, sure more so later as it spread throughout the empire, but the closer to junior's supposed "time" the more crickets you tend to hear). Yes, I know, the MJ camp will say…”naturally because he’s fictional.” But for the sake of this discussion, I’m coming from the angel of a real though mostly unknown individual.


And just to make it clear: I have no doubt that there are experts that argue for all sorts of Jesus theories. The questions that I and others have asked is what is the evidence that the experts you cite based their claims on?


As has been repeated in this thread over and over, three main “evidences” have been proposed.

1. Epiphanius
At this point I think we can lay this one to rest. Even if Epi’s statements regarding succession are implying a BCE junior, it’s probably because he doesn’t realize that he’s’ screwing up the dates. Not to say he hasn’t soaked up some of the Jewish polemics regarding junior, because it seems he has. For example, he says Panther was part of Joseph’s and Jacobs’s family name!
That looks like he’s picking up on the polemic about junior being the bastard son of the Roman Soldier Panther as described in the Contra Celsum. Maybe it’s been repeated so many times that he’s being bamboozled into accepting it as a fact?

2. Talmud
A few entries in the Babylonian Talmud one of which has the rabbi Jehosha ben Perahjah “repelling Yeshu ha-Notzri with both hands” . If I recall, Perahjah was operating at the time of Alexander Jannaeus.
Again it looks like a scribe/interpolater is adding in the ha-Notzi is passages that used to say just Yeshu and some that even only had ben Stada.
So the so called “Jewish-Christian tradition” of junior being dated to 100 BC is hardly that. If anything it’s a Jewish tradition of older material that includes the Yeshu name in some Talmudic entries.
Yeshu isn’t even used in the Mishna (but it does pop up in the Tosfeta).
The 100 bc connection as an alternate/correct date seems more a manufactured item made by the 19th century authors and reiterated by a few in the 20th (including Price). This may simply be an interpolation in one of the Babylonian manuscripts added by a scribe that may have thought..."oh, here's a good spot to add ha-Notzri to the older material to smear the Christian junior!...tee-hee!" The final redaction of this Talumd has been placed around the beginning of the 6th century, so it's easier to see a later author interpolating the older texts.

3. Toldoth Yeshu
Oh boy, this one is drug out continuously because of the Wagenseil translation has the Alexander Jannaeus date for junior’s birth. Interestingly, you won’t hear too many bringing up the Strassburg manuscript version. That one has a reference to a rabbi named Yohanan. Several rabbis have had that name living between 40 CE to 300 CE, so take your pick.

The 100 bc date is hammered continuously, but few seem to have a problem with the stories of junior being hung on a cabbage stalk or buried under the gardeners stream. It has several deviations from the canonical accounts not just the date.

Why the BCE date?
-IDK, maybe the authors didn’t know the standard Christian dating for junior (yes I know, they themselves have vacillated also) so they mined the Talmud to fill it in. Perhaps they did know that Yeshu better than details regarding the biblical junior.

The Toldoth does mention Pandera as the bastard father, so it does have some bits of ancient pieces in it, though its history as a more completed work isn’t well known before the 7th century CE.

This question also pops up continuously;

max said:
So again if Jesus' life was so well known why was this 100 BC origin floating around in the 4th century and reiterated some time in the 6th to 9th?


The "well known" routine is coming from the NT. I thinks it's obvious that if anything, junior is virtually unknown. But if you're writing accounts and "the good news" about the most high incarnate, you are hardly going to say the logos walking around in the flesh, was an obscure backwater figure that missed the attention of every contemporary historian of the day.
Again, the 100 BC date seems to be mined from the Babylonian Talmud and then picked up by one of the Toldoth versions. Yes, it was attached to junior by Jewish polemicists, but it never had anything to do with the biblical junior imo.
 
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[post above]

This seems like one of the most informed and thoughtful posts that I've ever seen in one of these threads. However, I wasn't familiar with a great deal of what you said and maybe you've just managed to snow me.

My simplistic takeaway is that nobody knows about the earliest period of Christianity and that theories of references to an HJ in Jewish writing roughly contemporary with the hypothetical HJ are at least as speculative as many of the other HJ theories.

I'm not sure I'm up for the effort to acquire a deeper understanding of your post but I might eschew a few backgammon games on my tablet to make an effort.
 
This seems like one of the most informed and thoughtful posts that I've ever seen in one of these threads. However, I wasn't familiar with a great deal of what you said and maybe you've just managed to snow me.
Thanks.
I was trying to avoid "snowing" in that post, hence I tossed in some imo's where scholars disagree. But it is easy enough to check out through reading the literature and dare I say...even some search engine/wiki material can help.

My simplistic takeaway is that nobody knows about the earliest period of Christianity and that theories of references to an HJ in Jewish writing roughly contemporary with the hypothetical HJ are at least as speculative as many of the other HJ theories.
A fair assessment. Scholars (believing ones especially) tend to look at that period as if Christianity was this popular well known movement (filtered through a modern biased perspective) mostly oblivious to the fact that it may have simply been a (then) minor insignificant blip on Judaism's radar.

I'm not sure I'm up for the effort to acquire a deeper understanding of your post but I might eschew a few backgammon games on my tablet to make an effort.

No worries.
I just became a bit exasperated with the continuous repetition about the 100 BC junior date as being some well known "Jewish-Christian" tradition when I feel that is mostly a misunderstanding of the literature and a view of some "fringe" scholarship.

If you're going to do more research, I find a six pack per point is usually sufficient to get through the material.
 
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Corrected spelling and grammar.

My spelling and grammar errors are annoying the tar out of me, so I tried to clean up a few areas as follows (in bold);

---

These junior threads are prolific and some of the same issues keep coming so often, I thought this is a good a thread as any to answer this incessant pounding of the 1st century BCE junior date.

Originally Posted by davefoc
Could you point out what part of the Talmud refers to the Christian Jesus? My understanding of the situation is that the basis of the composite Jesus theory is that several characters described in the Talmud bare resemblances to the Christian Jesus. You seem to be claiming now that it has been proved that the composite Jesus theory is correct and that this provides proof that people in the third century believed that the Christian Jesus was born in 100 BC.


You will only find references to Yeshu ha-Notzri in the Babylonian Talmud. Of the four manuscripts only the Munich version has the ha-Notzri added to the Yeshu name.
Scholars generally translate it to meaning "Nazarene" though some do translate it as netzer (Hebrew for branch) or even Nazirite ( messianic title meaning consecrated/devoted). But that's a pissing match for another day.

It looks as though a scribe has gone through the old texts and inserted ha-Notzri to the old ben Stada and Yeshu "names" as a reaction/polemic to Christians.

A few entries that have inserted the ha-Notzri "name" are as follows;

b. Sanhedrin 103a
b. Ber. 17b
b. Sanhedrin 43
b. Sotha 47a


I think there are a few others as well. Check wiki for a complete list.



The problem here, as is similar to all other HJ theories, is that there isn't a hard fact to serve as a solid platform for the theory. Yes, the Christian Jesus stories might be based on an amalgam of characteristics of people that were described in the Talmud but where is the proof?

And if I understand your claims here you are also suggesting that since the composite theory is true that there were people who believed in the third century that the Christian Jesus existed in 100 BC. Even if the composite Jesus theory is correct it doesn't necessarily follow that in the third century a religion based on a 100BC Jesus existed.

I don't think you'll find any proof. Scholars are all over the map as to the references about junior in the Talmud. Hereford sees every Balaam, so & so, Yeshu, ben Stada, and ben Pandira as code names for junior. Which imo is ridiculous. That seems to be more of a believing scholar not facing (or being too biased to accept) the fact that junior was a mostly unknown/minor player that Judaism didn’t pay much if any attention to (at least initially, sure more so later as it spread throughout the empire, but the closer to junior's supposed "time" the more crickets you tend to hear). Yes, I know, the MJ camp will say…”naturally because he’s fictional.” But for the sake of this discussion, I’m coming from the angel of a real though mostly unknown individual.



And just to make it clear: I have no doubt that there are experts that argue for all sorts of Jesus theories. The questions that I and others have asked is what is the evidence that the experts you cite based their claims on?

As has been repeated in this thread over and over, three main “evidences” have been proposed.

1. Epiphanius
At this point I think we can lay this one to rest. Even if Epi’s statements regarding succession are implying a BCE junior, it’s probably because he doesn’t realize that he’s’ screwing up the dates. Not to say he hasn’t soaked up some of the Jewish polemics regarding junior, because it seems he has. For example, he says Panther was part of Joseph’s and Jacobs’s family name!
That looks like he’s picking up on the polemic about junior being the bastard son of the Roman Soldier Panther as described in the Contra Celsum. Maybe it’s been repeated so many times that he’s being bamboozled into accepting it as a fact?

2. Talmud
A few entries in the Babylonian Talmud one of which has the rabbi Jehosha ben Perahjah “repelling Yeshu ha-Notzri with both hands” . If I recall, Perahjah was operating at the time of Alexander Jannaeus.
Again it looks like a scribe/interpolater is adding in the ha-Notzi to passages that used to say just Yeshu and some that even only had ben Stada.
So the so called “Jewish-Christian tradition” of junior being dated to 100 BCE is hardly that. If anything it’s a Jewish tradition of older material that includes the Yeshu name in some Talmudic entries.
Yeshu isn’t even used in the Mishna (but it does pop up in the Tosfeta).
The 100 bce connection as an alternate/correct date seems more a manufactured item made by the 19th century scholars and reiterated by a few in the 20th (including Price). This may simply be an interpolation in one of the Babylonian manuscripts added by a scribe that may have thought..."oh, here's a good spot to add ha-Notzri to the older material to smear the Christian junior!...tee-hee!" The final redaction of this Talumd has been placed around the beginning of the 6th century, so it's easier to see a later author interpolating the older texts.

3. Toldoth Yeshu
Oh boy, this one is drug out continuously because of the Wagenseil translation has the Alexander Jannaeus date for junior’s birth. Interestingly, you won’t hear too many bringing up the Strassburg manuscript version. That one has a reference to a rabbi named Yohanan. Several rabbis have had that name living between 40 CE to 300 CE, so take your pick.

The 100 bce date is hammered continuously, but few seem to have a problem with the stories of junior being hung on a cabbage stalk or buried under the gardeners stream. It has several deviations from the canonical accounts not just the date.

Why the BCE date?
-IDK, maybe the authors didn’t know the standard Christian dating for junior (yes I know, they themselves have vacillated also) so they mined the Talmud to fill it in. Perhaps they did know that Yeshu better than details regarding the biblical junior.

The Toldoth does mention Pandera as the bastard father, so it does have some bits of ancient pieces in it, though its history as a more completed work isn’t well known before the 7th century CE.

This question also pops up continuously;

Originally Posted by max
So again if Jesus' life was so well known why was this 100 BC origin floating around in the 4th century and reiterated some time in the 6th to 9th?

The "well known" routine is coming from the NT. I thinks it's obvious that if anything, junior is virtually unknown. But if you're writing accounts and "the good news" about the most high incarnate, you are hardly going to say the logos walking around in the flesh, was an obscure backwater figure that missed the attention of every contemporary historian of the day.
Again, the 100 BCE date seems to be mined from the Babylonian Talmud and then picked up by one of the Toldoth versions. Yes, it was attached to junior by Jewish polemicists, but it never had anything to do with the biblical junior imo.
__________________
 
My spelling and grammar errors are annoying the tar out of me, so I tried to clean up a few areas as follows (in bold);

---

These junior threads are prolific and some of the same issues keep coming so often, I thought this is a good a thread as any to answer this incessant pounding of the 1st century BCE junior date.




You will only find references to Yeshu ha-Notzri in the Babylonian Talmud. Of the four manuscripts only the Munich version has the ha-Notzri added to the Yeshu name.
Scholars generally translate it to meaning "Nazarene" though some do translate it as netzer (Hebrew for branch) or even Nazirite ( messianic title meaning consecrated/devoted). But that's a pissing match for another day.

It looks as though a scribe has gone through the old texts and inserted ha-Notzri to the old ben Stada and Yeshu "names" as a reaction/polemic to Christians.

A few entries that have inserted the ha-Notzri "name" are as follows;

b. Sanhedrin 103a
b. Ber. 17b
b. Sanhedrin 43
b. Sotha 47a


I think there are a few others as well. Check wiki for a complete list.





I don't think you'll find any proof. Scholars are all over the map as to the references about junior in the Talmud. Hereford sees every Balaam, so & so, Yeshu, ben Stada, and ben Pandira as code names for junior. Which imo is ridiculous. That seems to be more of a believing scholar not facing (or being too biased to accept) the fact that junior was a mostly unknown/minor player that Judaism didn’t pay much if any attention to (at least initially, sure more so later as it spread throughout the empire, but the closer to junior's supposed "time" the more crickets you tend to hear). Yes, I know, the MJ camp will say…”naturally because he’s fictional.” But for the sake of this discussion, I’m coming from the angel of a real though mostly unknown individual.





As has been repeated in this thread over and over, three main “evidences” have been proposed.

1. Epiphanius
At this point I think we can lay this one to rest. Even if Epi’s statements regarding succession are implying a BCE junior, it’s probably because he doesn’t realize that he’s’ screwing up the dates. Not to say he hasn’t soaked up some of the Jewish polemics regarding junior, because it seems he has. For example, he says Panther was part of Joseph’s and Jacobs’s family name!
That looks like he’s picking up on the polemic about junior being the bastard son of the Roman Soldier Panther as described in the Contra Celsum. Maybe it’s been repeated so many times that he’s being bamboozled into accepting it as a fact?

2. Talmud
A few entries in the Babylonian Talmud one of which has the rabbi Jehosha ben Perahjah “repelling Yeshu ha-Notzri with both hands” . If I recall, Perahjah was operating at the time of Alexander Jannaeus.
Again it looks like a scribe/interpolater is adding in the ha-Notzi to passages that used to say just Yeshu and some that even only had ben Stada.
So the so called “Jewish-Christian tradition” of junior being dated to 100 BCE is hardly that. If anything it’s a Jewish tradition of older material that includes the Yeshu name in some Talmudic entries.
Yeshu isn’t even used in the Mishna (but it does pop up in the Tosfeta).
The 100 bce connection as an alternate/correct date seems more a manufactured item made by the 19th century scholars and reiterated by a few in the 20th (including Price). This may simply be an interpolation in one of the Babylonian manuscripts added by a scribe that may have thought..."oh, here's a good spot to add ha-Notzri to the older material to smear the Christian junior!...tee-hee!" The final redaction of this Talumd has been placed around the beginning of the 6th century, so it's easier to see a later author interpolating the older texts.

3. Toldoth Yeshu
Oh boy, this one is drug out continuously because of the Wagenseil translation has the Alexander Jannaeus date for junior’s birth. Interestingly, you won’t hear too many bringing up the Strassburg manuscript version. That one has a reference to a rabbi named Yohanan. Several rabbis have had that name living between 40 CE to 300 CE, so take your pick.

The 100 bce date is hammered continuously, but few seem to have a problem with the stories of junior being hung on a cabbage stalk or buried under the gardeners stream. It has several deviations from the canonical accounts not just the date.

Why the BCE date?
-IDK, maybe the authors didn’t know the standard Christian dating for junior (yes I know, they themselves have vacillated also) so they mined the Talmud to fill it in. Perhaps they did know that Yeshu better than details regarding the biblical junior.

The Toldoth does mention Pandera as the bastard father, so it does have some bits of ancient pieces in it, though its history as a more completed work isn’t well known before the 7th century CE.

This question also pops up continuously;



The "well known" routine is coming from the NT. I thinks it's obvious that if anything, junior is virtually unknown. But if you're writing accounts and "the good news" about the most high incarnate, you are hardly going to say the logos walking around in the flesh, was an obscure backwater figure that missed the attention of every contemporary historian of the day.
Again, the 100 BCE date seems to be mined from the Babylonian Talmud and then picked up by one of the Toldoth versions. Yes, it was attached to junior by Jewish polemicists, but it never had anything to do with the biblical junior imo.
__________________


What about the Babylonian Talmud's tradition, apparently from R. Hyrcanus speaking of "Jacob of Kfar Sechaniah" or "Sihnin" who, according to Eisenman mentions Jesus the Nazorean's response to the question of what to do with "a prostitute's hire or wages" given to the Temple as a sacrifice; Jesus the Nazorean says it might be fit to build an outhouse for the Priest.

The only reference to this I can find online is from Eisenman's book James The Brother Of Jesus...:

http://books.google.com.au/books?id...acob of Kfar Sechaniah Sihnin Talmud&f=false
 
What about the Babylonian Talmud's tradition, apparently from R. Hyrcanus speaking of "Jacob of Kfar Sechaniah" or "Sihnin" who, according to Eisenman mentions Jesus the Nazorean's response to the question of what to do with "a prostitute's hire or wages" given to the Temple as a sacrifice; Jesus the Nazorean says it might be fit to build an outhouse for the Priest.

The only reference to this I can find online is from Eisenman's book James The Brother Of Jesus...:

It looks as if the same pattern is occurring in that instance as well.

The older Tosefta version is less detailed and doesn't have the Nazarene reference.

(I'm going to skip to the pertinent areas)

t. Hul. 2:24
By Heaven, thou hast reminded me! Once I was walking along the street of Sepphoris, and I met Jacob of Chephar Sichnin, and he said to me a word of Minuth in the name of Jeshu ben Pantiri, and it pleased me. And I was arrested for words of Minuth because I transgressed the words of the Torah.

Now fast forward (decades/centuries?) to the Bavli (of the Babylonian Talumd) and you have names changed around and much more details added in;

b.Abod. Zar: 16b, 17a:
Once I was walking in the upper street of Sepphoris, and I found a man of the disciples of Jeshu the Nazarene, and Jacob of Chephar Sechanja was his name. He said to me, "It is written in your Torah, Thou shalt not bring the hire of a harlot...[the rest is similar to Deut. 23:13 about not bringing the hire of a whore or the price of a dog into the house of the Lord thy God....]

What may be done wit it? "Toilets for the high priest may be built with it".
And I answered him nothing.
He said to me, Thus hath Jeshu the Nazarene taught me, For the hire of a harlot hath she gathered them, and unto the hire of a harlot shall they return.


So again we have to wait until the Babylonian Talmud before "the Nazarene"
interpolation is inserted along with all this "new information."

What's odd is that the story is missing from the Palestinian Talumd but it is in the Tosefta. Does that mean it was inserted late into the Tosefta and not into the Palestinian Talumd because of an oversight? It may never be known for sure.
 
It looks as if the same pattern is occurring in that instance as well.

The older Tosefta version is less detailed and doesn't have the Nazarene reference.

(I'm going to skip to the pertinent areas)

t. Hul. 2:24
By Heaven, thou hast reminded me! Once I was walking along the street of Sepphoris, and I met Jacob of Chephar Sichnin, and he said to me a word of Minuth in the name of Jeshu ben Pantiri, and it pleased me. And I was arrested for words of Minuth because I transgressed the words of the Torah.

Now fast forward (decades/centuries?) to the Bavli (of the Babylonian Talumd) and you have names changed around and much more details added in;

b.Abod. Zar: 16b, 17a:
Once I was walking in the upper street of Sepphoris, and I found a man of the disciples of Jeshu the Nazarene, and Jacob of Chephar Sechanja was his name. He said to me, "It is written in your Torah, Thou shalt not bring the hire of a harlot...[the rest is similar to Deut. 23:13 about not bringing the hire of a whore or the price of a dog into the house of the Lord thy God....]

What may be done wit it? "Toilets for the high priest may be built with it".
And I answered him nothing.
He said to me, Thus hath Jeshu the Nazarene taught me, For the hire of a harlot hath she gathered them, and unto the hire of a harlot shall they return.


So again we have to wait until the Babylonian Talmud before "the Nazarene"
interpolation is inserted along with all this "new information."

What's odd is that the story is missing from the Palestinian Talumd but it is in the Tosefta. Does that mean it was inserted late into the Tosefta and not into the Palestinian Talumd because of an oversight? It may never be known for sure.

Thanks for that. Seems it isn't as straightforward as Eisenman presents it.

He seems to assume that it was removed from other versions of the Talmud, rather than added to the Babylonian version.

My brain hurts...
 

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