Is God necessary for (objective) morality?

Not necessarily. Kids might not be happy to eat vegetables, but they need vitamins. "Giving the kids vegetables" is an objective action- it applies to any kid, any parent, any vegetable equally. However, the meaning of the action, to the kid (vegetables taste yucky) is it is "wrong", and the meaning of the action to the parent (my kid is getting the vitamins he needs) is that it is "right".

Yes, this would be an objection, but I think that tweaks to the theory could account for it. For example, you won't make the kid happy right away, but they will be happier if they are healthy and not suffering from vitamin deficiency, so there is a kind of greater good that results. There will always be some balancing that must happen.


Ultimately, yes. But since we do not have full and perfect perception of those physics, we do not think in terms of pure physics. Our brains are wired to think in terms of metaphor and meaning and bound to a limited perspective. The sun "is" shining on a clear day, but that "means" both "a good vacation" and "ruined crops" at the same time.

But, in principle it is possible to have a complete picture of physics, no? So, do you think it is in principle possible to have an objective theory of morality?
 
That sounds good on its face, but put into practice it fails. Let say you fall out of love with the person you're with. Breaking up with them will hurt them, but help you. Which is the "moral" choice?

Morality exists, ideas about what is "right" and "wrong" exist because we live in a world of limited resources, imperfect perception, and conflicting values. If these didn't apply, "right action" would truly be objective and we wouldn't need morality.

But if we had a perfect reasoner, with perfect perception and free from conflict, would it be possible for this person to deduce objective morality? I think that if objective morality is even theoretically possible to deduce, that would mean that it exists, even if we could never achieve knowing it. Asking if objective morality exists is an ontological question, but asking if or how we can know what is objectively moral is an epistemological question. It is the latter that I am concerned with.
 
I think this is probably the only debate where his opponent outperformed him.

A Jewish Apologist named Rabbi Tovia Singer wiped the floor with him on Lee Strobel's show.

Watching two grown men arguing over descriptions of supernatural beings resembles two grown men having a heated debate over the claim that Data is more intelligent than Spock.
 
Piscivore said:
How much less bandwidth would it have required to post something resembling a definition of the term, instead of the analogies and evasions thus far?

He'd have to have one, first.

Oh, come on! That's BS. I had already provided what was asked for prior to you both saying the above, and I never made an attempt to evade the question. Everything you needed to have this question answered was in previous posts. Maybe I didn't spell it out explicitly, but I was in no way trying to dance around the question because I didn't really know what "objective" or "morality" means.
 
Yes, this would be an objection, but I think that tweaks to the theory could account for it. For example, you won't make the kid happy right away, but they will be happier if they are healthy and not suffering from vitamin deficiency, so there is a kind of greater good that results. There will always be some balancing that must happen.
That "balancing" is the result of it being subjective. If there were one objective "good", the balancing wouldn't be necessary- and neither would morals.

But, in principle it is possible to have a complete picture of physics, no?
Not with the brains and senses we have, no. And once we start speculating about creatures that can we're no longer discussing human beings, so who knows if and how morality will apply to them.

So, do you think it is in principle possible to have an objective theory of morality?
No. We cannot know what all the results will be of our actions, and what chains of events those results will in turn set in motion. We also cannot know how our actions will be perceived by others. Without that knowlege, the best we can do is make educated guesses.

But if we had a perfect reasoner, with perfect perception and free from conflict, would it be possible for this person to deduce objective morality?
I don't know, that's not a human being you're talking about.

I think that if objective morality is even theoretically possible to deduce, that would mean that it exists, even if we could never achieve knowing it.
Then the theoretical existence of "objective morality" would be completely meaningless. Like "god", in may respects. "God" in our time has been largely redefined so that it is an impotent and worthless notion cowering in whatever gap of ignorance can be found in which it can be stuffed. So has "objective morality".

Which is what we've seen here- people holding on to this sad and battered old notion of a "right" and "wrong" that is always good for everyone, everywhere... even if they can't really say what exactly it is or what it's good for. The best and only notion of it they can toss up anymore is baby-raping, for Eris' sake.

Asking if objective morality exists is an ontological question, but asking if or how we can know what is objectively moral is an epistemological question. It is the latter that I am concerned with.
Isn't it a good idea to find out if angels exist before trying to find out how many can dance on a pinhead?
 
Why wouldn't the descriptive version be objective? To go back to the gravity example, the theory of gravity is our description of how physical objects behave in our universe. But it's only a description of something we observe, it's not as though there is something out there watching over the physical objects and making sure they follow the law that this something has prescribed. It seems to me that being descriptive is a necessary condition for any set of laws to be objective. Maybe I misunderstood you?
I think the next point explains my argument better.


I am not sure I understand here either. It seems like you are saying that because the moral code changes based on societal conditions, it can't be objective. If that's what you mean, I don't think that follows. It could just be that our understanding of morality grows as we evolve.
Now here is why i think the application of morality is subjective.

1.) Morality is the behavior an individual in a society should or shouldn't do.
2.) these behavior laws will be shaped by those which work best for that species, from an evolutionary perspective.
3.) While there are some general convergence trends, not all social animals develop the same set of behavioral laws.

It is for this last point that I believe morality to be subjective. After all, if it wasn't, why would so many different community systems be observed in the animal kingdom?


It certainly does seem like humanity does improve morally as time goes on. Very few people think that human sacrifice is good.
Improve in what way?
And your second statement isn't completely true. If the human sacrifice was to save others, than people quite often are willing to do so. think about the debates on torture and on the train track scenario.



That's true. I am not concerned with sustaining society though (at least not in the context of this discussion). Morality is helpful for sustaining and advancing society, but if that is all that is, I am still stuck with the idea that I really have no right to criticize other countries for the brutality or human rights violations that take place. I can say that that's not very socially advantageous, but I can't say they are doing anything really "wrong." This is what bothers me about subjective morality. But that doesn't mean that I won't accept it if it is true. Most of the time I do believe that morality is subjective, but every once in a while I hear an interesting argument that makes me reconsider.
If you can't argue for your morality from a logical frame work, and must resort to "Because it's wrong", than you need to reconsider the principles upon which your morality is based. Yes, even with subjective morality, you can judge other societies as being "wrong". empathy and rationality provide all the tools one needs to do so. Subjective doesn't mean "anything goes". In the same way that evolution is a random process doesn't mean you can get a 747 from a tornado.



Only if we assume that sustaining society is the objective (goal) of morality. And even then, there could just be different models that get the job done, but some could still be better. For example, the geocentric model of the universe was capable of predicting the orbits of the planets and location of the stars decently, it's just that the heliocentric model did a better job, was simpler and could explain more observations.
Yes, but as with the geocentric model, it broke down completely when more observations were taken.

Sustaining a species can take a whole variety of forms. There are multiple solutions which fit the survival concept. As such, any one solution that one converges on is going to be a subjective one. Our species was evolved to be empathetic. We are exceedingly good at imaging what others think and feel. As such, it only makes sense that our morality would converge using that tool. Other animals which lack empathy would simply not have a structure anything like ours.



What if someone said that punching their friend in the face is a good thing, and the pain, bruising and anger that result are all good. There's nothing illogical or unreasonable about that if you accept the premise that those things are good. I am sure you don't accept that, but since good and bad are subjective, how can you say he is wrong? At best you can say that you think he's wrong.
empathy and rationality. As I said, it is the tools we were evolved to use.
Just because someone says something, that doesn't make it true. We know that physical trauma can result in aberrant wound healing. This could lead to infection, physical deformity, and incapacitation of that person. We can use our empathy to consider what it would mean to us to be punched in the face and determine if that is something "good". Once those concepts are laid out, we have the result that punching someone is "bad".

If we were evolved to be sociopaths who lacked empathy (Which we know is biologically possible as sociopaths exist), then such an argument wouldn't work. But that isn't how we are wired.

It doesn't though. Some or all of those making the claim could be wrong.
Then what is the practical significance of there being an objective morality, if we can't tell which one is which?


I don't think that study says anything about objective morality. It just shows that god is an idea that exists in people's heads, and that they use that idea to justify what they already think.
But it points to the neurological fact that when people claim to consider their "moral provider" they are really only giving what they inherently want to hear. That objective moral source is an illusion.
 
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You can always play with words, objective science or objective anything can be claimed to be only a social convention. We can measure that the temperature is X degrees Celsius / Fahrenheit, it is objective in one way, but also subjective in the way how we decided to name and number the various degrees of temperature.

I think you might be confusing subjective with arbitrary. I think that in this case, the correct term would be arbitrary. The scale is objective in that anyone using it will get the same answers, so it the scale in mind independent, but exactly how we set the scale was just arbitrarily chosen. It's not matter of taste or opinion, IOW.

Mutual agreement is what creates or removes the concept of "evil".

How so?


God is a subject (in the best case), so if what God says were objective morality, it would not be objective because God says it...

Yes, but to be fair to the theist (or at least this is Craig's argument), the claim is not that whatever god thinks is moral is moral. The claim is that god's nature is the source of morality and that this is just a fact about god. Sort of like how I am exploring the idea that morality could be a fact about the universe.
 
But if we had a perfect reasoner, with perfect perception and free from conflict, would it be possible for this person to deduce objective morality?

Doubtful. We have already created devices whose "reasoning" is far more accurate and powerful than ours, and in doing so we have discerned that there are limits to what reason can accomplish -- the works of Goedel and Turing come to mind.

Morality concerns itself with oughts, which by definition are always a matter of belief, and therefore are driven by our non-reasoning parts -- basic urges, emotions, etc.

I think that if objective morality is even theoretically possible to deduce, that would mean that it exists, even if we could never achieve knowing it.

In an abstract mathematical sense, perhaps. In Universe you and I inhabit, definitely not. If you disagree, try constructing a real Klein bottle.
 
To further expand on that, in some other thread going on, plumjam seems to claim that atheists must be amoral, since there is no standard for behavior in atheism (well, duh). Conflating amorality with immorality is stupid, and assuming a lack of standards in one area of a person's beliefs means the same lack of standards throughout all of that person's beliefs is equally stupid.

Sorry for the rant, bluskool, I will behave now.

Not only that but can any of these religious apologists tell us what the moral standard set out in the bible is? There seems to be an awful lot of sects, preaching an awful lot of different things in this regard and all of them distance themselves from the bad things in the bible.

So, what is the standard and does it include everything in the bible or are the evil things discarded?

I think it is impossible for any theist to claim standards that are better derived simply because of this, often overlooked, point.
 
Evolution is a descriptive phenomenon. But the exact path it will take is not known. the set of mores any species possesses is really specific to them based upon what provides them an evolutionary advantage. This, to me, makes the moral sets subjective.

Yes, that's exactly right. In order for morality to be objective it would have to be the case that if an intelligent species like us evolved that thought rape was good, they would be wrong.

Now, I also see a lot of parallels between the "Subjective morality means anything can go" vs. "Evolution says a 747 can form from a tornado in a junk yard"

Both of these arguments ignore the fact that there is an underlying mechanistic set that limits the set of morals that a society can adopt. but to think that those morals are set in stone, or that WE were the predestined result of evolution, are both examples of the sentient puddle fallacy.

I'm not too sure about this. I don't think subjective morality means "anything goes." I think it means that morality is an opinion. Saying that rape is wrong is like saying you don't care for Beethoven. If everyone believes in subjective morality, the world would go on like it does and all the mechanism for keeping behavior in check would be intact. It just means we can't say that rape is "really," categorically wrong.
 
In one of his posts that was shipped off to AAH, Plumjam used music as an analogy for objective morality. As the problem seems to have stemmed from Plumjam's personalization of the arguments, I'm pretty sure that the mods will not object if I resurrect only the sentences relating to the musical argument.
Originally Posted by plumjam
Does great music exist?
Obviously it does.
If someone you demanded to define great music in words either could not do so or couldn't be arsed with your boring line of discusson, would that mean that great music would have to stop existing?

This analogy actually works against Plumjam's argument. Qualitative statement regarding music are completely subjective. There is no music which is "objectively great". My subjective opinion is that Mozart's Mass in C minor K. 427 is a very beautiful piece of music. But if someone felt otherwise I could not state that that person's opinion was objectively wrong and therefor inferior to my own. I also love Tom Waits and Frank Zappa. Others don't. Who is objectively correct regarding the qualities of their music? I love Ali Akbar Khan but I do not care for deathcore. Is Ustad Khan objectively better than Suicide Silence? I can certainly make that claim, but I would just be arrogantly imposing my subjective opinion on others.

I think Plumjam gets lost or confused by his own analogies. To answer his question; yes great music does exist but only subjectivly in that there are people who would give a particular song the attribute of "great" and others who would not.

What is "great" depends on a value judgement of an individual or group. What critera is that defines that value differs from individual to individual. That is what makes it a subjective quality. You can show a person that middle "A" is defined as a vibrational frequency of 440khz, That is a measurable quality. "great" is not a similarly measurable quality since it relies on opinion or a human value judgement.

Color is an objective attribute because it is independent of human value judgement. Color is associated with a particular measurable, frequence or wavelength of photons. Adding the attribute of "beautiful" to a color necessitates a human value judgement. The attibute "beautifull" is a human value judgement that is determined on criteria that is not inherently measurable, or independant of a human opinion.

Objectively you can measure music by the order and timing of sound waves and thier frequencies. These are objective attributes of music. The criteria for what is "great" music is not measurable or determined without a human value judgement. Therefore music can exist objectively but "great" music can only exist subjectively
 
How can morality exist independent of any minds? Without minds, where is morality?

Mind independent is a misleading term. Minds are required for morality to happen in practice, but that doesn't mean that objective morality can't exist independent of minds. For example, arithmetic is objective, so it is by definition mind independent. However, no arithmetic would be done unless there were minds to do it. So, what mind independent really means is true independent of minds. Morality being mind independent just means that actions are truly right or truly wrong independent of what any mind believes, but it doesn't mean that morality can happen without minds.
 
In which case the definition is self-contradictory, and doesn't require further discussion.

How so?

But to try and be a bit more helpful, I see morality as having three categories, not two, which makes the distinctions between objectivity and subjectivity a bit easier.

Moral - What people normally think of as "good" actions.
Immoral - What people normally think of as "bad" actions.
Amoral - Actions that aren't subject to a good/bad dichotomy.

That's fine. I am not sure that amoral actions are of any consequence in deciding if objective morals exist though.
 
I confess that I don't understand the concept of objective morality at all. How could one discover it? "Now this is objective"?

How we "know" what objective morality is is a epistemological question, but what we are concerned about is whether or not objective morality exists (which is an ontological question) in the first place. No point in asking how we could know it if it doesn't exist.

I would say that whether there is objective morality or not, we, as humans, could never be certain that we have found it. How could we be certain?

How can we certain of anything?
 
Foster Zygote said:
plumjam said:
Does great music exist?
Obviously it does.
If someone you demanded to define great music in words either could not do so or couldn't be arsed with your boring line of discusson, would that mean that great music would have to stop existing?
This analogy actually works against Plumjam's argument.

Yeah, that's just silly. What sort of music is good or bad is definitely subjective.
 

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