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Intelligent Design

RussDill said:
Saying that something that caused the universe is "eternal" is really no different than saying that it has infinite volume. Its an attempt to jam something into our worldview.

No, because "eternal" does not necessarily mean infinite time. We don't really have language to describe things out of time, hence the confusion.

Religious thought has tended to think of God as "outside of time" since at least the middle ages, see for example Canto 29 of Dante's Paradiso.

Leaving religion aside we can surely concieve of something existing that is not subject to time, even if it is difficult to think about so there is no real objection to some uncaused entity that did not spontaneously appear.

But on the other hand there is no good reason to call such an entity God.
 
Interesting Ian
The ID argument has a lot of merit, but as far as I'm concerned it's independent of the causal argument.

Perhaps it does, but I have not heard or read the part that has any merit. Perhaps you could point it out.

(edit)Perhaps I should say that the ID arguments I have read are those put forward by Behe and Dembski which are basically attempts to find holes in Darwinian evolution rather than to propose any alternative theory(/edit)
 
Robin said:
Perhaps it does, but I have not heard or read the part that has any merit. Perhaps you could point it out.

(edit)Perhaps I should say that the ID arguments I have read are those put forward by Behe and Dembski which are basically attempts to find holes in Darwinian evolution rather than to propose any alternative theory(/edit)

It's a question of logically possible Universes we could have found ourselves existing in. Arguably our Universe is unusual in being governed by laws written in the language of mathematics, which moreover, are just to say discernable to human intellect.

Arguably we could have lived in a wholly chaotic Universe experiencing wholly random qualia.

Or if one were to argue that a certain order is logically necessary in order for consciousness to arise, then one could point to the fine tuning of the fundamental constants etc. Or one could ask why it is not the case that only our particular region of the Universe is characterised by order etc. Stuff like that.

And regarding evolution; it is held by reductive materialists that behaviour is reduicble to micro-physics, and hence fundamental physical laws. So we can ask why physical laws are of such a character that evolution could occur? ( a related question here is how common evolution is -does it occur frequently on other suitable planets in the Universe. I suspect so, but am not equipped to argue the point).
 
Interesting Ian
Or if one were to argue that a certain order is logically necessary in order for consciousness to arise, then one could point to the fine tuning of the fundamental constants etc. Or one could ask why it is not the case that only our particular region of the Universe is characterised by order etc. Stuff like that.

A certain order but not necessarily a specific order, different constants might have resulted in a different universe with a different type of intelligence pondering these same questions.

So I would say that order is a logical pre-condition for consciousness and everything else in this universe to arise. But does order logically imply intelligence or design?

On the one hand intelligence is a property that we observe in animals (including of course humans). It is a big leap to observe order and then infer that some property similar to that observed in animals on our planet must have produced that order.

On the other hand the word ‘design’ implies some pre-existing plan or pattern. We simply cannot logically connect order and design because any pre-existing plan or pattern would itself have an order. If order implies design then we have an infinite regress.

If there is some order that does not require a design then how can we be sure that any order requires a design?
 
Interesting Ian said:
And regarding evolution; it is held by reductive materialists that behaviour is reduicble to micro-physics, and hence fundamental physical laws.

Who holds this position? By name please...
 
a_unique_person said:

Thanks. That's a good one, and one would think devastating to ID by itself, except that believers won't read it, or understand it (as if they understand the arguments for ID).

The inconsistencies of Dembski's arguments here are, in some way more (Qualifier: I read the critique, not the book) pronounced in the earlier article posted by Paul, where Dembski as much as admits that his arguments and view of ID are constructed around the OBJECTIVE of getting it into the education system first, and proving it second.

A quote from the review follows:

It is the height of hypocrisy for Dembski to complain that Darwinism lacks causal specificity when his own theory lacks any specificity, including one atom of historical concreteness. Dembski may not have much of an argument, but you've got to admit he's got chutzpah.
 
Interesting Ian said:
It's a question of logically possible Universes we could have found ourselves existing in. Arguably our Universe is unusual in being governed by laws written in the language of mathematics, which moreover, are just to say discernable to human intellect.

How can the only thing known be called "unusual"?

Arguably we could have lived in a wholly chaotic Universe experiencing wholly random qualia.

Arguably we could not exist in such a universe.

Or if one were to argue that a certain order is logically necessary in order for consciousness to arise, then one could point to the fine tuning of the fundamental constants etc. Or one could ask why it is not the case that only our particular region of the Universe is characterised by order etc. Stuff like that.

You have already proposed the possible existence of other laws in other universes. If that is so, then this one is no stranger than saying that underwater is a universe where we are not designed to survive. Aren't we lucky to be able to live on dry land? That's called the Anthropic Principle I believe.

And regarding evolution; it is held by reductive materialists that behaviour is reduicble to micro-physics, and hence fundamental physical laws. So we can ask why physical laws are of such a character that evolution could occur? ( a related question here is how common evolution is -does it occur frequently on other suitable planets in the Universe. I suspect so, but am not equipped to argue the point).

Isn't that the same argument made above?
 
Interesting Ian said:
It makes no difference whether I'm talking about an infinite duration, or existing outside of time.
Surely "eternal/infinate duration/outside of time" is just the "turtles all the way down" argument...
 
new drkitten said:
So what do you say when someone who knows Aquinas' work well states that "Everything (except God) has a cause,

Gotta love those double standards. Makes everything so simple.
 
kitten,

The page to which you refer comes to this single-sentence paragraph: "Aquinas therefore has failed to show that the chain of causation must have had a beginning. As a result, his entire argument falls apart." The immediately prior paragraph sets up this conclusion with this: "He is begging the question if by "first cause" he means the cause that has the property of being first, for then he is simply assuming the very thing he is attempting to demonstrate." How this substantively differs either from my argumentum ad absurdum or from my subsequent comments about the reversion to illogic must give one cause for wonder.

I note for the record and for the audience that you continue to aim your guns squarely at skeptics on this forum, whom you continue to call scientistic, idiots and nitwits. Fascinating, kitten. One wonders why someone on this thread called you out for looking like a shill. Your foolishness in presuming there is only one way to address an argument astounds. Your unmitigated arrogance apparently blinds you to the inherent logic of other posters' approaches. Most offensive, however, are your sophomoric attempts to abrogate the rights of skeptics to think for themselves and to formulate their own arguments.
 
BillHoyt said:
kitten,

The page to which you refer comes to this single-sentence paragraph: "Aquinas therefore has failed to show that the chain of causation must have had a beginning. As a result, his entire argument falls apart."


Yes. I pointed that out, although not explicitly : "it's not that hard to refute Aquinas directly -- again, I refer you to the page cited above, which argues against him in a fairly strong and sophisticated fashion." As it happens, you didn't even pick up on the error in the refutation --- if time is finite, as modern science states, then it's an immediate consequence that an infinite chain of causes can only exist allowing infinitesimal time differences between causes and their effects. Since Aquinas (and, for that matter, modern physics) will not permit such infinitesimal differences, Aquinas' argument regarding a first cause remains valid in light of modern science. (Again, the page alludes to this in its discussion of "instantaneous causation," which the author accepts must also be ruled out. So even the page author, Franz Kiekeben, is also aware of another minor hole in Aquinas' argument as written [although Kiekeben evidently didn't think of infinitesimals]. Perhaps Aquinas wasn't as sophisticated a mathematician as we are now, or perhaps he left that sentence out in the interestes of brevity. Either way, Kiekeben is willing to grant the simple modification that would still allow the original argument to go through.)

The actual refutation of Aquinas' argument is subtstantially later : "[E]ven supposing that there was a beginning, it does not, of course, follow that there must be a God. There are, in other words, additional problems with Aquinas's argument. The first cause does not have to be a conscious being, much less one with all of the unusual properties commonly ascribed to God — it could be, for instance, the Big Bang." So, even granting the validity of the argument in favor of a first cause, it doesn't prove the existence of God.

This page, then, does an excellent job of refuting Aquinas on his merits. Even assuming the questionable validity of the existence of the first cause, his statement that "everyone understands [the first cause] to be God" is simply incorrect. Franz Kiekeben has done an excellent job, first, of stating Aquinas' argument fairly, of granting due deference to possible alternative interpretations or wordings and of obvious easy fixes, and then utterly destroying the argument. Kiekeben scrupulously avoids any appearance of "straw-man" versions of Aquinas that could be argued to not represent fairly the intellectual force of his First Cause argument.

You do none of these.


I note for the record and for the audience that you continue to aim your guns squarely at skeptics on this forum, whom you continue to call scientistic, idiots and nitwits.

No. I continue to aim my guns squarely at some soi-disant skeptics on this forum, who are doing the cause of skepticism a disservice by continuing to be scientistic, idiots, and nitwits. At the head of that list of some I place you, in part because of your contining practice of presenting straw-man versions for believer practices and arguments and then ridiculing them instead of refuting them.

Unfortunately, in this practice, you (and, again, I refer personally to "you") not only make yourself look foolish, but you also poison the well for anyone who is actually trying to take the JREF educational mission seriously and present reasoned, well-founded arguments to illustrate the errors, instead of simply ridiculing the believers to annoy them. The JREF forum already "enjoys" a reputation of being a collection of closed-minded dittoheads (I refer you to "Interesting" Ian's periodic rants), in part because so many of the participants -- and again, I include you specifically in this list -- refuse to critically examine the believers' arguments, but dismiss them, rudely, out of hand. You're also unwilling to examine critically the idea that science might be wrong or to subject scientific claims to the same sort of scrutiny you propose for the paranormal. This isn't a difficult burden; science is as it is because there are masses of evidence for most if not all conventional scientific beliefs. However, to read your postings, science is as it is because it is True, and Truth is evidently something self-evident and apparent to all true believers in Science. As I have said before, that's not science, that's scientism.

I would be delighted if anyone on this thread were to formulate their own arguments or to think for themselves; that's part of my educational mission. I specifically enourage you to forumate an argument, instead of sophistry. Unfortunately, I don't think that will happen.
 
Eos of the Eons said:
Gotta love those double standards. Makes everything so simple.

Yeah. Especially those biologists, when they say that "All mammals (except for monotremes) give birth to live young." And when the physicists say that "all atoms (except for hydrogen-1) have neutrons."

Calling it a "double standard" isn't a refutation, just an insult. If you think you can prove that God had a cause, go ahead. But sometimes the world just isn't uniform, you know?
 
new drkitten said:
The actual refutation of Aquinas' argument is subtstantially later : "[E]ven supposing that there was a beginning, it does not, of course, follow that there must be a God. There are, in other words, additional problems with Aquinas's argument. The first cause does not have to be a conscious being, much less one with all of the unusual properties commonly ascribed to God — it could be, for instance, the Big Bang."

This does not refute Aquinas' argument if one supposes that only mental causation exists; and we have excellent reasons for supposing precisely this. All we observe in nature are patterns, events followed by other events. We never witness any actual generative causal power. Rather we project it into the world. But a good case can be made for it being so much metaphysical nonsense.

On the other hand we are immediately acquainted with our own causal agency. We actually immediately experience the power to move our own bodies.
 
Interesting Ian said:
This does not refute Aquinas' argument if one supposes that only mental causation exists; and we have excellent reasons for supposing precisely this. ["reasons" snipped.]

I don't think you understood either Aquinas' argument or the refutation. Stripped to the bare essentials, Aquinas' argument is :

* A first cause necessarily exists.
* This cause is (necessarily) identical to God

The refutation is simply that the first cause is not necessarily identical to God (the second statement is false by inspection). There could, for example, be several different First Causes (as predicted by Zorastrian theology), or the Big Bang could be an unintelligent first cause, which is distinct from God (who is presumptively intelligent). In either case, a "first cause" would exist, but not be identical to God; these situations are not ruled out by Aquinas' argument.

Even if you postulate that only mental causation exists, that doesn't establish the necessary uniqueness of a first mental cause, which in turn means that the first cause is not identical to God. In other words, the refutation still holds.
 
Paul C. Anagnostopoulos said:
I don't believe there is a single completely-worked analysis of a biological mechanism showing that it is irreducibly complex. That would be because the methodology is hopelessly muddled.

~~ Paul

Jumping back in posts a bit here; could it be not a matter of muddled methodology, but simply that it hasn't been found because it doesn't exist?
 
Elind said:
Jumping back in posts a bit here; could it be not a matter of muddled methodology, but simply that it hasn't been found because it doesn't exist?

I believe the muddled methodology is a bigger issue here, largely because the notion of 'irreducibly complex' is not well-defined (as Paul pointed out earlier, it conflates at least two incompatible definitions and in practical terms many more once the defensive "shifting of terms" happens). Many things have been found that are "irreducibly complex," but each irreducibly complex thing that has been found has resulted in a definition change....
 
Elind said:
Jumping back in posts a bit here; could it be not a matter of muddled methodology, but simply that it hasn't been found because it doesn't exist?
Both of the above. The methodology is definitely muddled, which is why no one has tried to apply it thoroughly to any biological mechanism. Dembski makes a half-hearted attempt in No Free Lunch, but ignores all the hard parts.

~~ Paul
 

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