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How/why did monotheism evolve?

About the returning folks... Is it just me, or is that fully irrelevant? Whether it was the descendants of the Hebrews taken into slavery, or a different group that (for whatever reason) decided to learn Hebrew and move to a backwater craphole, what difference does it actually make?

The fact is, it's some more educated folks coming to Jerusalem, who had grown in a more advanced culture, like their parents before them, and like their parents' parents. And who had all sorts of more progressive ideas about religion and theology, including the idea of reading to the masses what some standardized scripture says. (Instead of just having a hereditary priesthood just tell the people, "wait, you need to pay for that too.")

Whether they were really Hebrews or not, what difference does it make?

And how would you even know it couldn't have been Hebrews that learned all that advanced stuff while being abroad? Is there something genetic that would have prevented them from getting all those ideas while copying Mesopotamian religious scrolls, or what?


Exactly...absolutely... the point is that they DID learn that stuff from there regardless of their personal origins or the extent of their amalgamation.

It is much like Paul... whether he was really a Hebrew or even Jewish is immaterial. He claimed to be so, yet he also claimed to be a huckster. But we can debate about what he was to no avail.

What matters is the question whether the religion he was trying to peddle was Judaism or was it a different thing that usurped Judaism in order to gain more leverage and more legitimacy and more acceptance (?), or maybe for some other reasons we cannot know today.

Likewise, it is immaterial if the "returnees" were what they claimed to be or not. What matters is the very obvious fact (just like it is for Paul) that the religion they established was not what the original inhabitants followed. Rather, much like Paul's, it was an usurpation of the old with added Paulinism.

And much like Paul's the new religion took over and if the Christians had their way they would have wiped out Judaism along with Paganism which they did manage to blot out like Judaism wiped out "Canaanism".

I also find it quite intriguing that even then Christianity still hints at “wise men from the east” as being important in the story of their new religion.

I also still find it quite puzzling the extent of polemic that the Bible has against the Canaanites if the writers were Canaanites why such extreme attempts at even accepting to be descended from slaves from Egypt and Babylonian illegal immigrants and genocidal racist ethnic cleansers rather than Canaanites who do not like the rest of the clans of Canaan.

It is almost like if Alexander were to try claiming that he was Egyptian rather than accept being Greek along with Athenians.
 
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Besides Ezra et al probably just started the Bible which kept on evolving. I am sure just like Christians kept on adding Gospels and Epistles and Acts and so forth to the original religion and to the Bible itself, the new generations and newly converted YHWH theocrats added stuff too.
Nothing in the Bible predates Ezra?
The Bible was even rewritten entirely in Egypt (Septuagint) and as far as we know most bibles today may stem from that perhaps even the Masoretic one too.
LXX isn't a translation of any pre-existing text?
But even if it was in the Ezra original, it still is not a contradiction. The pure religion for the Zoroastrian is not what is depicted in the Bible in any case.

The Bible was not DEVISED for Zoroastrians, it was fabricated for the consumption of the heathens so as to make them worship the one god by hook or by crook regardless of how or what they think he is; so long as they worship the one god who is the manifestation of Ahura Mazda.
But if he contradicts the character of Ahura Mazda ... ? These "missionaries" were just spreading any old monotheism, even if it contradicted their own monotheism? Odd behaviour.
So if YHWH is depicted in a contradictory manner in the Bible does that dictate that only monotheists could have written it since dualist cannot be that stupid?
No. Please think about that again. Dualist preachers don't promote an evil-doing god when the religion of which they are supposed to be missionaries preaches the opposite.

Your arguments seem entirely arbitrary. The returnees might be depicted as gaga. The texts are purely imaginary, based on no local tradition. The missionaries are stupid liars ... by such means one can prove anything. Jesus was a Buddhist. Well, he was an insane Buddhist misrepresenting the tenets of his own religion, and in fact he never said anything and it was all got up by Paul who was lying about it anyway, and then it was falsely translated ...
 
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Exactly...absolutely... the point is that they DID learn that stuff from there regardless of their origins.

Well, the thing is, it's pretty mainstream scholarship even for Judaism that they came back with all sorts of new ideas from Babylon.

So why bother making a whole controversy out of it with extra claims that really make no difference?

Likewise, it is immaterial if the "returnees" were what they claimed to be or not. What matters is the very obvious fact (just like it is for Paul) that the religion they established was not what the original inhabitants followed. Rather, much like Paul's, it was an usurpation of the old with added Paulinism.

Well, the Samaritans even thought just that: what the new guys are peddling is a radical corruption of the original faith. And the old priestly caste was none too pleased with the new Pharisees either.

The comparison with Paul is apt, because, yes, they were adding all sorts of sequels to it, like they were guided by the holy spirit of George Lucas :p

And not only that, but they kept making crap up as they went for the next couple of hundred years. Every few decades they'd just happen to "find" some "old" prophecy that followed the pattern of accurately "predicting" a few events that clearly were after its claimed date (although in reality they were in the past at the time when they were actually written), and then something about the events at hand.

E.g., Isaiah linking his prophecy to the child of one of the king's concubines is probably actually written during the reign of said child, not before he was born, to give him more legitimacy.

BUT... isn't that damning enough already? Why do you need to introduce unsupportable claims like it being all rewritten in Egypt later, introducing all sorts of failed prophecies and inconsistencies for no good reason, when their making up crap as they went is just as bad anyway and not much of a controversy? Why do you need stuff like some Persian conspiracy there, when just self-serving tyrants rewriting history on the fly is just as bad anyway?

And much like Paul's the new religion took over and if the Christians had their way they would have wiped out Judaism along with Paganism which they did manage to blot out like Judaism wiped out "Canaanism".

I wouldn't call it "Canaanism", but yes, a reactionary group of religious fanatics in the area, wiped out the competing religions. Again, that's just mainstream stuff. Hell, not only that's what modern secular historians say, it's what even the OT says.

You don't need to complicate it any further.

I also find it quite intriguing that even then Christianity still hints at “wise men from the east” as being important in the story of their new religion.

Matthew was scouring the OT for sentence fragments he can use as references to his Jesus and then inventing stories to match them and claim that, see, Jesus fulfilled that. It's even possible that he was working from more than one translation, because he switches between stories between stuff that's from our version of the LXX and stuff that was obviously corrected to be more in line with the Hebrew original, depending on which served his BS better.

And most of the time, he even tells you what piece such a made-up story "fulfilled". The other three work from the OT like that too, but unlike them, Matt is not going for subtlety. He just beats you upside the head with what phrase fragment he was "fulfilling" there.

He was not some kind of historian, nor working from actual historical sources. So don't take Matt as a historian. He ain't.

If that story is there for a reason -- and yes, it is -- it's because it served such purposes for Matt, not because it reflects some historical event from ages past.
 
Well, the thing is, it's pretty mainstream scholarship even for Judaism that they came back with all sorts of new ideas from Babylon.

So why bother making a whole controversy out of it with extra claims that really make no difference?
Yes, exactly.
 
Nothing in the Bible predates Ezra?


Yes there were many things all over the region e.g. Ugarit. I never claimed otherwise.


LXX isn't a translation of any pre-existing text?


Why such distortion of what I am saying? I said "rewritten". When one translates a book then the book is rewritten since it is now in a new language.

I am sure a person of your caliber knows jolly well what can happen to a book when it is translated even with fully capable and utterly well intentioned translators.


But compare
In Zoroastrianism, the creator Ahura Mazda is all good, and no evil originates from him.
http://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Zoroastrianism
with
Isaiah 45:7 I form the light, and create darkness: I make peace, and create evil: I the LORD do all these things.


I was pointing out that the bible we have today is not necessarily the one that was initiated by Ezra. Which was in response of you giving me a verse from the Bible we have today in attempt to negate that Ezra could have written the bible. I was trying to explain why it is not necessarily a negation that Ezra wrote the Bible since that verse could have been a later corruption.

Also Ezra did not write the entire Bible and the parts he wrote were not out of the Blue.

Do you believe that the book of Mormon having bits based on the Bible acquits it from being a fabrication by Joseph Smith?

Do you think that the book of Mormon being fabricated by one man stopped millions of people who were previously well entrenched and inculcated Christians from believing it was created by God or if they are less stupid by at least a NEW revelation from god?

Why couldn't Ezra's fabrication have been regarded in the same manner by a similarly inclined people as the Mormons are?

And much like the Christians kept on adding to their fabrications with further fabrications in later generations couldn't Ezra's subsequent generations of followers have done the same?

And why couldn't the translators who wrote the LXX have done much what say Marcion did by removing some stuff or what the Catholics have done by adding some stuff?


You quoted a verse that contradicts the Zoroastrian principles claiming that it makes it impossible that Zoroastrians could have written the initial parts of the bible. I hope you can see that that is not a valid argument.
 
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No, translating a text is not the same as rewriting it.

Yes, the LXX had a lot of translation errors, like the nonsensical "virgin" instead of "young woman", or the literal "a donkey and a son of a donkey" translation that our Matt slavishly copied. And just correcting that kept generations of scribes busy.

But there is no indication that it actually did anything else to it than translate the existing text. There is no indication that it actually did anything like, "what say Marcion did by removing some stuff or what the Catholics have done by adding some stuff". (Note that there is no indication that Marcion actually removed anything either, as opposed to just working by another gospel.)

Nor is there any indication that they could force anyone back in the Aramaic speaking Judaea to go by their Greek mis-translation instead of sticking to their existing Hebrew scrolls, so I'm not sure WTH do you think the importance is. Sure, some of those mis-translations were copied into Xianity by berks like Matthew, but there is no indication that it did anything for Judaism. I mean, other than tie up some rabbis time trying to fix the mis-translations.

And finally, if you think they did add or remove stuff, please show what and where. Just arguing "why couldn't they have?" is just bloody frakking stupid.
 
Well, the thing is, it's pretty mainstream scholarship even for Judaism that they came back with all sorts of new ideas from Babylon.

So why bother making a whole controversy out of it with extra claims that really make no difference?



I am not even a scholar let alone a biblical one. So I am not making any controversy. I am just presenting a hypothesis that I have been mulling over for a few years. I am also posing many questions that people of your caliber might be able to answer to my satisfaction.

It is just a proposal of mine as I have explained in this post. Also as I said it seems it is not as innovative as I would have liked in any case.

I am not saying it is valid or that it is sound. I am presenting it here for discussion and INTERESTING civil DISCOURSE..... no controversy intended.

I apologize if I my ponderings have touched some nerves as Biblical topics seem to always aggravate someone or another’s nerve no matter how well callused over that nerve happens to have been.

Why is it so??? We are educated people trying to dissect and analyze a novel hypothesis. If you disagree with what I say and then I disagree with your disagreement then it is only with the intent of having an interesting discussion about a book which is a load of myths anyhow.

If I play chess with you and counter your attack on my rook with an attack back on your queen it does not mean that I am attacking you …. I am just playing the game.

I enjoy your rebuttals and I try to rebut back as much as I am capable. If you finally win then I will shake your hand and thank you for a challenging GAME from which I also enjoyed learning something new…. I hope you are as equally disposed.

But I have seen people coming to fisticuffs even over a Chess game.... I am not so inclined, a game is a game and I lose nothing but perhaps some USCF points which I really do not even care about.

To me all this is much like a game of chess...... MUCH ADO ABOUT NOTHING dear old chap.... no controversy needs be stirred up.
 
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No, translating a text is not the same as rewriting it.

Yes, the LXX had a lot of translation errors, like the nonsensical "virgin" instead of "young woman", or the literal "a donkey and a son of a donkey" translation that our Matt slavishly copied. And just correcting that kept generations of scribes busy.

But there is no indication that it actually did anything else to it than translate the existing text. There is no indication that it actually did anything like, "what say Marcion did by removing some stuff or what the Catholics have done by adding some stuff". (Note that there is no indication that Marcion actually removed anything either, as opposed to just working by another gospel.)

Nor is there any indication that they could force anyone back in the Aramaic speaking Judaea to go by their Greek mis-translation instead of sticking to their existing Hebrew scrolls, so I'm not sure WTH do you think the importance is. Sure, some of those mis-translations were copied into Xianity by berks like Matthew, but there is no indication that it did anything for Judaism. I mean, other than tie up some rabbis time trying to fix the mis-translations.



Can you please explain to me how we know that?
 
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Yes, but it WAS a divine protection racket anyway. Why do you need some Persian conspiracy, when a hereditary priestly class inventing some scriptures to justify their own privileges, works just as well?

You don't need a foreign connection to explain why the patricians in Rome came up with divine reasons for why only they can be pontifex or consul. Or you don't need a foreign connection to explain why the Brahman caste in India made up all sorts of religious BS to justify their hereditary privileges. Why do you need some clever subterfuge of the Achaemenid dynasty to explain it here? Is there any reason why a bunch of privileged Jews would totally need external help to come up with their own religious protection racket?
 
And finally, if you think they did add or remove stuff, please show what and where. Just arguing "why couldn't they have?" is just bloody frakking stupid.


From this site

Differences Between the LXX and the Traditional Hebrew Text

The LXX differs in many places from the traditional Hebrew text, the Masoretic Text, known as the MT. There are divergences in words, verses, and passages; the order of verses or whole chapters; and the presence or absence of verses and sections. The question of why these differences exist is a difficult one, and is at the heart of the issue of the transmission of the Scriptures. There are basically two explanations.

First, in a number of differences textual critics can fairly easily discern that the variance is due to divergent manuscripts; that is, the Hebrew text from which the LXX was translated had different words than what is found in the MT. Two of the most well-known examples are Deuteronomy 32:8 and the book of 1 Samuel. The MT has “sons of Israel” and the LXX has “sons of God” in Deuteronomy 32:8. Textual critics agree unanimously that the LXX is the correct text due to manuscript evidence (the Dead Sea Scrolls agree with the LXX here and elsewhere in Deuteronomy 32) and logical coherence.2 With respect to 1 Samuel, the Dead Sea Scrolls support the LXX in numerous instances against the MT, but not always.

Second, in many instances scholars feel that the most likely answer to a disagreement between the LXX and the MT is that the LXX translator had the text of the MT, or something nearly identical, and simply translated very freely or interpretively. Already in the early Church there was sensitivity to this phenomenon. The great textual scholar Origen (185–254 AD), well versed in Hebrew and Greek, undertook the task of “adjusting” the text of his LXX to the traditional Hebrew text. While well-meaning, the result of this amazing endeavor was that it made the task of parsing differences between the LXX and the MT even harder for modern scholars.


Also have a look here.
 
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Can you please explain to me how we know that?

The more compelling argument is that none of the many bilingual Jews like Josephus or Philo or, really, most of the educated upper classes, seems to mention any such manipulation. Josephus for example may or may not be correct about who commissioned that translation (the letter of Aristeas he quotes seems to be a forgery), but as far as he's concerned, it's a translation, not a different story.

And that's not some Greek guy who only saw the LXX translation, but one of the locals.

Philo is also a good candidate for someone who should have noticed if the story was different, because he is precisely writing a LOT of theology, and is routinely having correspondence with guys back home or travelling there from time to time. You'd think he'd notice if some sermon doesn't match his copy of the LXX.

Another compelling case for it being a translation, is that it uses Hebrew/Aramaic constructs that are translated word-for-word, although they are meaningless in Greek and only confuse a Greek speaker. Like we see them confuse our own Matthew. Stuff like repetition to mean emphasis, although a Greek speaker like Matt mis-understands that as being two donkeys, when in Greek or Aramaic that would just emphasize one donkey. Or the "son of X" construct as a way to say X, e.g., the "son of a donkey" that confuses Matt into making one donkey the foal of the other. Or for that matter the "Son Of Man" construct that provided a source of confusion for several non-Jewish people, including a forgery in the Ge'ez language that confused our own Piggy about what the early 1st century Jews believed.

It's stuff that makes no sense for a Greek speaker to write, if they are just making up the text, because Greek doesn't work that way. It is however exactly what you'd expect to encounter if someone is slavishly translating a Hebrew or Aramaic text, word-for-word in places.
 

Yes, but none of that says it was more than translation errors, including the occasional omissions that would happen when copying a text by hand.

Also, since it mentions the order of books, remember that there was no such thing as a standard order at the time. Different books were different scrolls. There was no such thing as a standard order in which you have the scrolls on the shelf.

The order only starts to be an issue when the books are compiled into a codex, which would happen much later. And yeah, different people had different ideas there.
 
Can you please explain to me how we know that?
i.e.
there is no indication that it actually did anything else to it than translate the existing text.
One indication is that among the textual variants found in the DSS there are versions resembling the Samaritan, others resembling the later MT, and yet others appearing to represent a Hebrew sub-stratum of LXX. Thus, all three are represented (in the passages where they differ) in Hebrew form.

It is outside the bounds of probability that the redactors of the DSS spent time translating the LXX from Greek in order to obtain Hebrew texts, when they already had a proto-MT. So the LXX must have been translated from a pre-existing Hebrew version. Since this "Hebrew LXX" was permitted to coexist with the other Hebrew forms it must not have had offensive novelties or anomalies in its text.
 
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Hello everyone,

I will respond to our conversation at a later time as I am going in for oral surgery, so I'll be out for at least a day.

Cheers,
Jayson
 
Hello everyone,

I will respond to our conversation at a later time as I am going in for oral surgery, so I'll be out for at least a day.

Cheers,
Jayson
Good luck with that. I just had a tooth pulled last week, and I have few enough left to lose. A diet of porridge and mashed bananas for me from now on. I hope you recover well.
 
It is almost like if Alexander were to try claiming that he was Egyptian .
Well, he did claim to be the son of Amun, when he came back from the desert. :)
A diet of porridge and mashed bananas for me from now on. I hope you recover well.
You are a real Scotsman in the way you eat your porridge?

No time for substantive reaction, thanks all for the interesting posts, and Jayson good luck with the surgery.
 
Hello everyone,

I will respond to our conversation at a later time as I am going in for oral surgery, so I'll be out for at least a day.

Cheers,
Jayson

All the best with the oral surgery.


Good luck with that. I just had a tooth pulled last week, and I have few enough left to lose. A diet of porridge and mashed bananas for me from now on. I hope you recover well.

There's always rice and boiled mashed carrots when you tire of the porridge and bananas.
Teeth :(
 
You are a real Scotsman in the way you eat your porridge?
Yes. I totally detest sweet porridge. But don't use the so-called "porridge oats" which are rolled flakes. The result is like wallpaper paste. Use only "pinhead" or "medium" oatmeal. It's got a real taste. Water, salt. That's all. Add milk later.
 
Hello everyone,

I will respond to our conversation at a later time as I am going in for oral surgery, so I'll be out for at least a day.


Good luck, I hope all goes well!


I just had a tooth pulled last week, and I have few enough left to lose. A diet of porridge and mashed bananas for me from now on. I hope you recover well.


Ouch!! Get well soon! Why couldn't our Imbecilic Designer not have fitted us with dentures in the first place?? :mad:
 
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Do you not understand my point? A bunch of people turn up in Judah and say "We are the people who were deported from here 47 years ago." Then the folk back home would expect to meet older family members born in Judea before the deportation, or their immediate descendants -- who would have all sorts of information about the family back home, and deceased deportees: "Your cousin Zeke; why he died seven years ago. Pity he never lived to see this day." And so on. But you want me to believe a bunch of foreign missionaries could successfully pretend to be these returnees, back in the old country. Most improbable.
None of that responds effectively to my observation on the difficulty of foreigners claiming to be locals and their families returning after 47 years. Some of the deportees stayed behind in Babylon. So what? (The Babylonian Talmud, by the way, was compiled a thousand years after the end of the exile.) Nor can I accept that the persons deported were so different in social class, and so remote, from those left behind, that they could successfully be impersonated as you suggest. I rarely meet Lords or the Queen, but these early societies were smaller and more concentrated, even if rigid caste distinctions were in operation.


CraigB, can you please explain to me how you arrived at the 47 years figure?

According to my understanding Jerusalem fell in 597 BCE and Cyrus II (the great) conquered Babylon in 539 BCE.

Assuming that the slaves were freed exactly the same year Babylon fell and that they returned to Jerusalem in exactly that year then that still makes it a span of 58 years.


Do you think the books of Ezra and Nehemiah are historical? Do you think they are telling the truth even if they were “historical”? Do you think they were accurate even if they were being honest?

I suggest you spend a couple of hours reading Ezra carefully and then Nehemiah. That is all it would take just a few hours.

If you still believe that the narrative in these books is feasible then I suggest you start a new thread and let’s discuss these two books starting with how and why you think they are feasible.

Regardless, however, even if I were to grant you that Ezra/Nehemiah is in fact an accurate and honest history of the “returnees”, the books still do not support your 47 years figure. In fact they push the number to well over 150 years.

If we go by the Ezra/Nehemeiah narrative the returnees seem to have actually returned in three expeditions the Nehemiah one (Nehemiah 2:1) is said to be 20 years into the time of Artaxerxes' rule. The Ezra mission seems to be in the time of Artaxerxes too (Ezra 7:1). But Which Artaxerxes is it I or II? The Zerubbabel expedition is said to have been in the first year of Cyrus II (Ezra 1:1) but there is something amiss here. Let’s examine the narrative a little more closely.

Keep in mind this timeline during the discussion below.



According to Ezra 1:1 the first wave of returnees started to prepare for the trek in the 1st year of Cyrus II despite the fact that Cyrus was not the one who actually conquered Canaan and the region. It was his son Cambyses who in fact conquered Syria, Lebanon, and Egypt in 529 BCE. So if we were to be more realistic the first wave of returnees could not have succeeded in returning until the Persian rule was consolidated over the region which brings the lapsed time to 68 years.

But the T5 is not over yet.

We are told that when Zerubbabel et al started building the temple "the people of the land” (Ezra 4:4) asked them to help with the construction (Ezra 4:2) but Zerubbabel rejects them saying they have nothing to do with their god (Ezra 4:3) and they are only carrying out the commands of Cyrus II.

However this quarrel seems to be taking place in the time of Artaxerxes I(Ezra 4:7, 8,11,23) rather than Cyrus II or even Cambyses or Darius I. So this pushes the year to at least 465 BCE assuming it is Artaxerxes I. This makes it 132 years of lapsed time. Even if we are to say that this is a mistake and they meant to say Xerxes it would still be 485 BCE which still makes it 112 years of elapsed time.

Zerubbabel had to stop work (Ezra 4:24) due to all the letters back and forth that these freed slaves seem to have been privy to and they themselves are also writing letters to the Persian Emperors.

The quarrel went on into the reign of Darius who could only be II not I since the first preceded Artaxerxes I and even Xerxes. This by the way makes it more likely that the narrative did mean Artaxerxes I rather than Xerxes which pushes us again to 132 years of elapsed time.

We are told these freed slaves have the ability to know what correspondence was going on between "the people of the land" and the Persian Imperial Court (Ezra 4:8-24) and these returned slaves themselves are also in contact with the Imperial court and send a letter to Darius II telling him to look up the archives and research the orders of Cyrus II to empty the coffers of Babylon of their looted gold and silver and holy cutlery (Ezra 5:11-17).

Incredibly Darius II is so benevolent to these slaves freed by his great-great-great-great-grandfather. He is so concerned about them and their YHWH and even hopes that they pray to YHWH on his and his children’s behalf in their temple (Ezra 6:10). More astoundingly he does not just order more treasure to be sent to them along with designs for the temple (Ezra 6:1-8), he also orders that taxes and tributes of the region should be paid to them so as to complete the building of the temple of YHWH (Ezra 6:8-12). And all this is from a theocratic Zoroastrian Emperor who worships Ahura Mazda to the exclusion of all other gods who according to Zoroastrianism are demons.

So now we are to believe that Zerubbabel returned in the first year of Cyrus II but then went on quarrelling with “the people of the land” whose help he rejected because they have nothing to do with his god for until the “second year of Darius II” (Ezra 4:24).

So how much time is that? If we are to take the fact that Cyrus II supposedly freed the slaves and sent them home with 7000 slaves of their own in 539 BCE and that the second year of Darius II was say 425 BCE then this is a span of 114 years.

So the first wave of returnees still did not build Jerusalem or the temple even after the lapse of 114 years after they supposedly were freed. In other words 172 years since the destruction of Jerusalem it was still desolate and the first wave of returnees still were quarrelling with “the people of the land” over the LEGITIMACY of themselves and their mission. Given the life spans of biblical heroes this is nothing. But in reality this is not feasible. If Zerubbabel was born in Jerusalem he would have been over 172 years old when he was battling the “people of the land” over who is a more legitimate Judean.

For Nehemiah’s pilgrimage the narrative states that there was nothing yet built and Jerusalem was still in ruins (Nehemiah 2:17). So by the 20th year of Artaxerxes (Nehemiah 2:1) he must mean the I not the II since in Ezra 4:17-24 we are told this is the king who ordered the stopping of the building of the temple and the reconstruction commenced again in the second year of Darius II and went on smoothly from then onwards until completion. So Nehemiah’s mission was at least in 445 BCE which is 152 years (but could have been 164 see later) after the Babylonian rapine.

Now consider the Ezra expedition. In Ezra 7:1 it says
Now after these things, in the reign of Artaxerxes king of Persia, Ezra the son of Seraiah, the son of Azariah, the son of Hilkiah,

So the question is, is this the I or the II Artaxerxes?

The phrase “after these things” is obviously referring to the quarrel resolved by Darius II (Ezra 6) which then means that it must be the II Artaxerxes. This is also borne out by the narrative in that when he arrives the Judeans already have a temple and they have been marrying and breading with “the people of the land” which Ezra abhors and orders everyone to immediately divorce and abandon their families (Ezra 8,9 and 10). What gave Ezra such supreme authority to the extent of telling the Judeans they need to throw away their children and wives?

However there is a problem. In Nehemiah 8:1-7 it describes a scene where Ezra the scribe brings out what might have been the Torah and starts reading to the people. Did not the returnee slaves have any scriptures for so long? Why is Ezra such an authority? Why was no body publically reading the Torah before Ezra?

Also we have another problem with Nehemiah. Even though he says in Nehemiah 2:1 that he went to Jerusalem in the 20th year of Artaxerxes I he later says in Nehemiah 13:6 that he did not go to Jerusalem until the 32nd year of Artaxerxes I.

So what are we to make of this? Did Ezra go to Jerusalem in the reign of Artaxerxes II as is implied by Ezra 7:1 or was it 20 years (Nehemiah 2:1) or 32 years (Nehemiah 13:6) into the reign of Artaxerxes I?

Ezra’s mission could not have been any earlier than 445 BCE or 433 BCE or 405 BCE. In other words Ezra’s expedition was at least 152 years since the destruction of Jerusalem if not 164 or even 192 years.

I think Nehemiah is a confusion since it contradicts its own account. I’m inclined to think that Ezra was a scribal expedition sent over to rule the first lot who already built a temple.

Nehemiah’s was an inspection expedition to supervise the work and move it along after it got bogged down as a result of the first wave’s quarrels with the “people of the land” and the temple was not yet built nor was Jerusalem even walled by say 20 years into Artaxerxes I reign. So giving the temple time to be built well during Darius II reign, then Ezra’s commission must have been in fact during Artaxerxes II reign especially considering that Darius II ruled about 20 years only and that might be just about right to complete the building of the temple and the walls of Jerusalem.

So I am inclined to think that Ezra’s expedition was no earlier than 405 BCE which makes it 192 years after the destruction of Jerusalem.



So let us establish a timeline for this tale… 597 to 539 to 445 to 425 to 405
  • 597 BCE
    Nebuchadnezzar destroys Jerusalem and takes 10,000 people captives to Babylon as slaves but yet they are allowed to keep their religious scroll and genealogical lists despite the fact that all their holy Tupperware and cutlery has been confiscated and shut up in Babylonian coffers never to be touched for nearly 60 years. He also installed the previous King’s Uncle as a puppet king despite the fact that Jerusalem was emptied according to common perception which is not borne by archaeology in any case.

  • 539 BCE
    Cyrus II conquers Babylon and immediately frees 42360 Judean slaves (Ezra 2:64) who have been slaves for 58 years breading and learning and reading religious scrolls in between their slave duties all the while keeping track of their genealogical lists of who is who.

    This Zoroastrian Theocratic Emperor has no more pressing matters after his conquest of Babylon than to also design a temple (Ezra 6:3-5) layout and manner of building for a foreign god called YHWH he has never heard of and orders the emptying of all the looted gold and silver and precious cutlery from the coffers of Babylon where this treasure has been sitting for the last 58 years untouched and unspoiled and never tempting anyone. He gives all that to those slaves along with thousands of pack animals and of course thousands of slaves for the freed slaves to own. I wonder why Cyrus did not free those poor slaves who are destined to remain slaves for freed slaves.

  • ca 445 BCE
    The Zoroastrian Theocratic Emperor is concerned about the mood of his wine pourer Nehemiah and asks him while he is pouring his wine “what’s the matter old man?” (Nehemiah 2:1-4). Nehemiah explains to this Ahura Mazda worshiper that he is concerned about the state of Jerusalem which somehow this wine pourer seems to know all about from his vantage point as a servant in the court. Why did he not leave with Zerubbabel’s expedition? He asks the Emperor to let him go on a vacation. Surprisingly this nice emperor seems to love his servant and asks him how long a vacation he will need and when will he return from his return to resume his servile duties after he has had his respite resolving the problems of Jerusalem.

    Moreover this unbelievably empathetic Emperor does not just let his servant leave on a holiday for as long as he needs, he also sends a garrison of Captains and Cavalry (Nehemiah 2:7) to guard him and force other kings along the way to Jerusalem to obey the letters he is also giving him so as to be able to collect wood and gold and more holy Tupperware in order to resume building the city of YHWH who Artaxerxes as a worshiper of Ahura Mazda would have been totally concerned about of course. Never mind the little detail that this is the same King who a few chapters earlier ordered the stopping of the rebuilding of Jerusalem and its temple (Ezra 4:19-22) on the grounds of having a history of being a bellicose city.

  • 425 BCE (or maybe 437 BCE)
    Darius II a Zoroastrian Emperor receives a letter from the leaders of those slaves to resolve a quarrel between these returned slaves and the “people of the land” whom they despise and deny that they worship the same god as them despite being supposedly their relatives who ought to have recognized them. We are also to believe that this quarrel has been now going on for around 114 years.

    If you are not already filled to the rim with T5, here is another one. Darius II the theocrat of Ahura Mazda orders that the temple for YHWH should be constructed and he sends further gold from the coffers of Babylon and ordains that the tributes and taxes of the “other side of the river” be given to the Judeans so as to complete the Temple for YHWH from whom he hopes to get blessings for himself and for his Zoroastrian children. (Ezra 6:7-12)

  • 405 BCE
    Ezra is sent with yet more gold and silver and more “returnees” (Ezra 7:1-27) along with their own slaves to go and inspect the status of YHWH’s temple and city and “beautify” it (Ezra 7:27). This other freed slave returnee somehow or another has MAJOR COMMAND over the people who are already there from supposedly 134 years earlier.

    Moreover he has this scriptures which the earlier two stages of returnees already there for a century and a half don't seem to have read until Ezra comes over and reads it to them and they are all emotionally moved by hearing it (Nehemiah 8:1-8).

If we are to consider real historicity assuming this whole tall tale has any basis in history in the first place and that the muddled up narrative is just mistakes, then we can only conclude that at the very least 152 years would have elapsed before any “returnees” were in Jerusalem since the invasion of Nebuchadnezzar in 597BCE until the AUTHORITIES of Nehmeiah and Ezra were commissioned ca 445 to go and sort out the mess in Jerusalem because Darius II and Artaxerxes I were so darned preoccupied to help out slaves to keep on owning slaves and build a temple to a god they would have not cared about if not even abhorred as a demon according to their Theocracy.

Also consider that the “people of the land” objected violently to all this. If those theocratic Emperors wanted to control the land with puppet regimes wouldn’t it have been more prudent to actually assign puppets from among the “people of the land” rather than from among almost dead freed slaves from Babylon?

If anyone can find a different timeline according to the Ezra/Nehemiah narrative please let me know. All the above is what I have discerned from a careful reading of the book for the umpteenth time already. But I am only a student of biblical studies and not by any means a scholar, so please any scholars tell me where am I wrong.

Even if we were to allow the minimal REALISTIC elapsed years between the Diaspora and the return of 68 years I am betting that most over 15 might have died during this span of time especially considering that they were slaves and have had to endure a trek of thousands of miles across a desert being goaded along at the tips of swords and lashes of sadistic despotic killers called soldiers for a sadistic despotic Empire.

I doubt many would survive slavery well into their 80s. I also do not think many over the age of 70 could have survived the trek back to Jerusalem as freed slaves regardless of the gold and silver (or perhaps because of it) and despite being attended upon by thousands of slaves and sung to by hundreds of singing slaves on the way while riding on their thousands of pack animals.

This means not many people over the age of 5 could have made it back as returnees with the first Zerubbabel migration. The other wave of Nehemiah being 152 years later would not have contained any returnees whatsoever and not even their children. It is even more absurd to think that Ezra could have been a returnee given that his expedition was at least 192 years later. If Ezra ever was alive in Jerusalem and carried away he would have been well over 192 years old by the time he saw Jerusalem again. For a Bible tall tales that might pass, but for reality this is what I would call a Telltale Testimonial To Tall Tales alright.

Also have a look at the rest of the book of Nehemiah (13:15-31). He describes how these returnees (again as has been mentioned in the Bible ad nauseam umpteen times in almost every book) resume worshiping gods other than YHWH even after all that. Preposterous.
 
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