That is to say that it is a political move to re-purpose the word? If there are endless debates on the meaning of the word "racist" caused by this definitional change, I fail to see how it is a more useful definition. It's not like during the anti-slavery movement, or the civil rights era they struggled to say that they thought institutional racism was a bad thing.
What is the problem that is being solved by this change? I see no good and lots of harm. You create a bunch of people who think there its OK to hold and act out on bigoted racial opinions because they can't be racist, you get the backs up of a lot of people who would otherwise agree with you, and you create a bottomless pit of sophistry where people pretend that they are entirely ignorant of the definition that has been in play for 100 years.
This is a really important point. I am concerned that the term racism has been redefined in academic circles and picked up by people to justify bigotted behavior regardless of race. In the vernacular, racist and racism are very loaded and pejorative terms that should not be flung loosely.
I also agree with previous posters that it is important to distinguish behavior that is prejudicial and behavior that is prejudicial with the use of power.
In this thread, I have seen the discussion progress to essentially discussing what is an accurate trait attributable to a racial group and what is a trait attributed due to prejudicial intent. For instance, a simple and accurate trait attributed to African Americans is that they have a darker skin tone that those of European descent. It gets more complicated because we have lots of people with a recent ancestry that comprises Africans and Europeans as well as other populations.
In some ways this is the most interesting point of discussion. At what point, can a trait be attributed to a population without being bigoted? Brainster offered his opinion:
I do tend to believe that in the US, the mean level of intelligence of whites is higher than that of blacks. This does not mean that every white is smarter than every black. And before I get accused of white superiority, I also tend to believe that whites lag Asians and Jews in the US in terms of the mean level of intelligence.
This information is of limited value, I admit, since the variance of intelligence within all groups is fairly high.
If this were testable and provable in some way to be an accurate opinion, would this still be bigoted (racist)? (IMHO, it tends to be bigoted without evidence.)
Personally, I think you can only make accurate factual statement along racial lines when it comes to physical appearance. Difference in wealth, academic achievement, etc. is more frequently better explained by socioeconomic and historical conditions than racial/genetic lines. I can't find it at the moment but there was an article in Scientific American a few years back that demonstrated the genetic differences between race are really just about non-existent.