Rolfe
Adult human female
Re: Re: Homoeopathic contraception?
I'm going to assume that that was a typo or pure bad grammar, and you meant to state that a proving could affect fertility.
So, a proving could make a person more or less fertile? I'll pass on asking for evidence because why expect any from Barb, why change the habit of a lifetime.
So, if a proving made the subject more fertile, would the "therapeutic" use of the remedy not reduce fertility? But I see the problem. The "patient" is perfectly healthy, so how would the remedy know it was supposed to act in the opposite way, and wasn't supposed just to be doing the proving bit again. Tricky.
But, if a proving made the subject less fertile, and we consider that the person wishing contraception will be healthy, then why should they not use that proving effect as a contraceptive?
Unless of course, unknown to them, they were in fact subfertile all the time, in which case the remedy might detect that and "cure" it. Oops!
It's quite fun, all this speculating about what might be so in this entirely untestable world where you can just make up the rules as you go along anyway because actually nothing does diddly-squat, but it's a bit terrifying to realise that people who actually believe this fantasy actually aim to take responsibility for people's health.
Rolfe.
Er, did you mean that? A proving could make the person fertile?Barbrae said:no - but a proving could effect fertility
I'm going to assume that that was a typo or pure bad grammar, and you meant to state that a proving could affect fertility.
So, a proving could make a person more or less fertile? I'll pass on asking for evidence because why expect any from Barb, why change the habit of a lifetime.
So, if a proving made the subject more fertile, would the "therapeutic" use of the remedy not reduce fertility? But I see the problem. The "patient" is perfectly healthy, so how would the remedy know it was supposed to act in the opposite way, and wasn't supposed just to be doing the proving bit again. Tricky.
But, if a proving made the subject less fertile, and we consider that the person wishing contraception will be healthy, then why should they not use that proving effect as a contraceptive?
Unless of course, unknown to them, they were in fact subfertile all the time, in which case the remedy might detect that and "cure" it. Oops!
It's quite fun, all this speculating about what might be so in this entirely untestable world where you can just make up the rules as you go along anyway because actually nothing does diddly-squat, but it's a bit terrifying to realise that people who actually believe this fantasy actually aim to take responsibility for people's health.
Rolfe.
