Not according to those, you know, pesky historians who have studied the subject.
Millions? Really?
more than 1 million people were killed at Auschwitz. its a fact.
Not according to those, you know, pesky historians who have studied the subject.
Millions? Really?
could you guys for once in your freaking lives make an argument that does NOT rely on negative evidence, and is thus not logically fallacious?
.It is also interesting to note that the deliberate executions were in reference specifically to the "infirm".
The right to reparations is not a universal right as you appear to think but rather dependent on there being a powerful "victim" and a wealthy "perpetrator"
So an Arab who lost his house in Jaffa will never receive reparations ("perpetrator" is wealthy, "victim' is powerless)
A Finn who lost his home in the Soviet Union will not receive reparations ("victim" is not powerful enough, "perpetrator" not wealthy enough)
A Jewish person will not receive reparations for lost property in Eastern Europe ("victim" is powerful, but "benefactor" or "perpetrator" is not wealthy enough)
A German person will not receive reparations for lost property or internment in the Eastern Europe or USSR ("victim" is weak, "perpetrator" is not wealthy enough)
A Jewish person will however receive reparations from German companies - despite the fact that modern companies drew no financial gain from that labor - how does IG Farben have any benefit from construction in Oswiecim? Since most of Germany was sent back to year zero in 1945, the economic miracle is in large part created since then Here the amount of compensation will depend on the power of the "victim". So a Jewish person will get greater compensation than a non-Jewish person working in the same camp, because they wield greater power.
A Jewish person will also receive reparations from Swiss banks, for the simple reason the "victim" is powerful, and the "perpetrator" is wealthy.
Personally I have nothing against Jews seeking reparations, and obviously confiscated property should be restored, but it should be recognised it will be when hell freezes over before they pay any to those whose property that took in Palestine.
This only makes things worse for you, I'm afraid. You wrote, very clearly, 'I did not know Auschwitz was a labor camp'. Full stop. Now you try and backpedal and say you didn't know this at high school? So freakin' what?
Either your ignorance persisted up until the time when TSR corrected you, or you were being dishonest in acting as if it was somehow unknown or not generally understood that Auschwitz was both a labour camp and a site of extermination.
Ignorance or dishonesty, take your pick. I'm not fussy.
.Not even Birkenau was designed for mass murder, nor did it function purely as a mass murder camp.
snip
This is utter nonsense.
.
But nothing in the language suggests exclusively to the infirm, but let's run with *this*: it's okay, in your book, to execute someone just because they are sick is nothing to be concerned about? And did you notice the part that says they were left to die of exposure?
You didn't specifically condemn or even mention this, so by your standards these are both okay.
Got any answers yet?
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It pretty much does suggest exclusivity. If they were executing children just because of being children then again it would be reasonable to have specified that.
Is it ok? Off course not. The whole point of the discussion is if it happened. I realize that you have a hard time understanding this.
.How many people do you think know that Zyklon B was a disinfectant?
.I hope you also realize that a scant sampling of the internet is not even remotely close to what I consider the public at large and that's to understand that your "research" was also restricted to english. That some people don't know how to use a computer or even afford one and many others that do know how to use the internet, but don't post. How about also that it's now a crime in some countries? That I still stand by that most people do not know many other details about the Holocaust such as that Auschwitz was a labor camp.
.It pretty much does suggest exclusivity. If they were executing children just because of being children then again it would be reasonable to have specified that.
.Is it ok? Off course not. The whole point of the discussion is if it happened. I realize that you have a hard time understanding this.
The evidence shows that it happened. What you are arguing is if that was the "intention."
What I think many are saying is that it doesn't matter if it was the "intention" it is what actually happened.
Look at it another way. If you round up a group of people and they are sick, and you put them in a camp and work them until they die. At what point are you responsible for noticing that they are dying?
If your intention is not to kill people, but they start dying in the hundreds of thousands, and wrap your mind around that. Take the results of the Tsunami in Thailand. 230,000 people die. The decay from the dying created huge health issues that threatened the others. You start cleaning this up and it's magnitude is staggering.
Are you suggesting that the Nazi's didn't really understand that this is a huge number of people dying? Are you suggesting that they get to play the "ignorance" and "not what we intended" card all the way through 10 million people?
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That would be a grand total of none, because it wasn't.
It was a pesticide.
Do you understand the difference, or do you prefer to keep digging that hole deeper?
What evidence shows what happened exactly?
It still does matter the intention because the understanding of that intention directly relates to "what actually happened" and the point is again if it happened and what exactly.
Can you explain the exact of cause of death for all that died in Auschwitz? Don't you think 1.1 million is even more staggering?
Then:
How many people do you think know that Zyklon B was a pesticide?
.Then:
How many people do you think know that Zyklon B was a pesticide?
Also you skipped the question about the pogroms against the Jews. I would suggest that even if the original intention wasn't a final plan, I can certainly see why it would be perceived that way.
Jews were rounded up for being Jewish, they were singled out for being Jewish. The same way the Japanese were in the US. Are you also suggesting that there was not a systematic singling out of Japanese in the US?
Let's take this. Sugar is not intended to kill. But using the diabetic situation, if I dump tons of sugar into the camp food, knowing that it is going to kill them, can I then say "Well it was just sugar? Did you know that? Sugar, harmless little sugar. Wow I put sugar their food. That's not a bad thing now is it?"
If I put a bunch of people in a room and dump in a pesticide to kill the lice, and the whole room drops dead. Then I do it again and again and again and each time claim, "I only was trying to kill the lice, it's not my fault they all died"
Can you see why someone would think you were full of ******
It really isn't. The religious sanctity of the land is a huge part of the problem.