Free will redux: What is true free will?

Well, you can't have it both ways. You can't squeeze out a definition as vague and high-level as "makes decisions" and yet complain that certain methods of arriving at decisions don't qualify.

First, I'm not complaining, I never even seriously considered the notion of Magic 8 Ball and decisions, you brought it up.

Second, I've never considered the 8 Ball a method of arriving at decisions. People arrive at decisions, for various reasons. If they use the 8 Ball, they have decided to use the 8 ball, and that's the *effective* decision. The words on the 8 ball are just words. They wouldn't mean anything to a person who couldn't understand the language.

Business decision software does make decisions. If it didn't, no one would buy it.

In buying it, you have the decision. If you allow the business decision software...to what, buy stocks on its own?...you've also decided that. Kind of like if I let the sprinkler run all day. Is the sprinkler deciding to sprinkle all day? No, I decided to let it sprinkle all day.

That's why people use it, so they don't have to pay human beings to make certain sets of decisions.

Right. *That* was the decision that was made.

This stuff literally takes the place of human decision-makers.

I agree that it takes the place of people who would otherwise make decisions in that role.

So again, am I correct in saying that by "makes decisions" you mean "consciously makes decisions in a manner that allows for more than one possible conclusion from a given set of data and circumstances"?

I *think* so.

-Elliot
 
Well, in this case, you're dodging one of the central issues by using the term "me". When the doctor hits my knee with a mallet, my leg jumps. When I sneeze, my eyes close. When a fast-moving object suddenly looms in my immediate field of view, I flinch. When my bladder gets sufficiently full, I pee, whether I want to or not. When I'm overwhelmed by emotion, I cry, whether I want to or not.

Now obviously, "I" do these things. No one else does them. But there's no free will involved. It's reflex.

Sure. Why can't both *reflex* and *free will* exist? Does it have to be one or the other?

You say that I can't have it both ways. Why not? Because you say so? If in reality it is both ways, then it doesn't matter what you say I can or can't have? I'd rather talk about what it is, as opposed to any limit you would subjectively impose.

ANOTHER DICHOTOMY! It's one or the other, or, better yet, is HAS to be one or the other. 5th dichotomy I've encountered today. I didn't need to say that. I just did!

If everything we do is akin to reflex, but in some cases it merely seems like it's not (see the "mother's birthday" post, for example), then we cannot salvage free will by pointing out that the decisions were made by something we call "me".

I agree that if everything is akin to reflex, then you are correct, nothing would be akin to free will. I mean...that kind of follows, doesn't it?

Well, that's been my position here. I think we have to say the jury is still out on whether the "i" can affect the non-conscious modules, or whether that's not possible.

I don't have a problem with that, I'm just giving my opinion, and it will be of variable worth, or of no worth at all. :)

And for me, answering that question is at the heart of the question of free will.

If "conscious" in fact exists...I don't know why it wouldn't be able to affect the non-conscious modules. Are we assuming or agreeing that there is such a thing as consciousness, or self-awareness?

-Elliot
 
You got my point after the next paragraph, right?
Agreeing that the behaviorist controls particular variables in an experimental situation is not the same as agreeing that the behaviorist is not also being controlled.
I wish you would be more specific about what constaints, reinforcers, punishers you are talking about.
Ay, there's the rub. The whole reason for studying them in an experimental context is that it it much too uncontrolled to study them adequately in vivo. I do not, though, think it improbable that the laws of behavior stop working at the lab door. (I imagine someone challenging a chemist: "sure, the chemicals react that way in your lab, but not in my body!")
Is the phenomenon sometimes called countercontrol one? Sometimes the objects of study may resist. Or is that a bad subject, given that this phenomenon seemingly undermines behaviorist theory of choice being a function of environmental variables.

I'll let Skinner explain it by some lines he wrote (in Science and Human Behavior):
Please note that Skinner is speaking there about reactivity, with emphasis on reactivity to aversive control. Aversive control (which our society uses, and which Skinner advocates against in "Beyond Freedom and Dignity) is, in part because of a subject's reactivity to it, not nearly as effective as control through reinforcement. That is the point of Skinner's quote. He can state it rather confidently, because there is excellent evidence.

It is not utterly irrelevant to our current question, but it is only a small part of it. We react against negative control, in part because it is salient. Control through reinforcement may be much more subtle, and because it is not seen (by our society) as a threat to our freedom, it is more acceptable. (When it is excessive, it is seen as a threat--bribes, the "love bombing" of cults, etc., but in general, positive reinforcement is far less prone to countercontrol than is punishment.) In addition, much control of our behavior comes about through the establishment of stimulus control, rather than the simple manipulation of consequences.
What happens to the behaviorist theory that reinforcement is what controls behavior if the behaviorist who tries to control/reinforce his subject is likely to be repaid in kind? Who would be controlling whom given this circumstance?
Are you assuming that in any relationship, "control" is a one-way thing? It most certainly is not. Also, why are you artificially removing the behaviorist from her/his environment? There are other factors, aside from the behavior of the subject, that influence the behaviorist's actions. The fact that some come from outside the lab situation does not make them, while inside the lab, part of the behaviorist's "free will".

(minor quibble: "the behaviorist theory that reinforcement is what controls behavior"...incomplete. The environment is what controls behavior. It does so through reinforcement, punishment, stimulus control, etc.)

But that has little to do with my original question in all of this. You said:

How does the behaviorist/scientist chose to propose his specific hypothesis as an explanation of natural phenomena (behavior), designing experimental studies that test this prediction/concept for accuracy, etc, if the environmental variables controlling this process of proposing, designing, and testing are not in his control?
In another thread, you listened to Skinner's lecture on having a poem. How does a mother have a baby if the chromosomes are not under her control?

A behaviorist's experiment-running behavior is determined by her/his interaction with environment; it is both shaped by contingencies and an instance of "rule-governed" behavior (an entirely different can of worms we can get into if you would like--the cliff-notes version is that we are reinforced for following rules, which allows us to learn the gist of some complex behaviors very quickly). What it is not, is a freely chosen spontaneous creation, independent from environmental influences.
Oh, but of course: Skinner found invoking terms such as "hypotheses", "concepts", or "experimental studies" not relevant in functional analysis as the mental activity these terms imply is really just behavior and that the only non-circular way to explain behavior is to appeal to something non-behavioral like the environment.
Other authors find the terms helpful, as part of the rules one learns to follow in order to engage in such behavior.
Mercutio, is our dialogue here really better understood within Skinner's construct (forgive the "mentalistic' term) of control/countercontrol? Theoretically, (again, forgive the "mentalistic" term) that would be me, attempting to control the situation by pointing out the apparent incoherence (damn, not another "mentalistic" term) of your position, and you, countercontrolling through vague and evasive answers?
Your failure to understand could be the result of the form of my answers, certainly. It could also be due to prior learning. Without adequate controls, it is mere speculation.
Is the only way the controller can escape from the possibility of countercontrol to give up trying to control the actions of someone else?

Probably.
One does not have to *try* to control the actions of someone else in order to actually control them; nor does "not trying" guarantee escape from countercontrol. Also, control is not always something that one tries to escape from (my classes are full of people who have paid good money to have someone attempt to control and influence their behavior; therapists, personal trainers, investment consultants, etc., can all say the same).

The biggest bit of advice (based on the research, of course) for someone trying to "escape from the possibility of countercontrol" would be to A) use positive reinforcement rather than punishment to control, and B) to use natural, rather than artificial, reinforcers whenever possible. And to keep up to date on the behavioral literature.
 
A question for Mercutio: What does twin studies tell us about free will? Or do they tell us anything?
An interesting question...

On first thought...I think they are essentially irrelevant. Determining that a particular characteristic is more genetic than learned is interesting, but for the free will debate, I think most people would call both options "determined". Something may be genetically determined, or determined by your environmental interactions, but still not be freely chosen. (In truth, one's genes may be said to have been determined by environmental interactions as well, through natural selection. Random variability in genes is then subject to environmental selection, just as random variability in behavior is subject to reinforcement or punishment.)

Of course, I may have missed something...but that's my initial thought, anyway. (and yes, I am a behaviorist. I have worked in a couple of institutions, but currently teach behavioral classes at a University.)
 
As far as your second quote goes, I will never mind in terms of taking any personal offence. Being a fan of the 'illusion of free will' means I probably don't have much to add in terms of defining the true nature of true free will. In that regard, you can probably disregard my posts as far as this thread is concerned.

As an aside, then, I'll address a few of your points:

Talk about political smoke screens.

That's what I am saying. You can't have a prominent scientist telling a nation of believers that freewill as they imagine it to be does not exist. Frankly, I think it's unfortunate for someone to have asked him this, because I think the argument has some religious connotation.

I can't believe you'd come onto a board like this and actually put forth the argument "walks like a duck, talks like a duck" and expect to be taken seriously.

Pardon me for being glib. In this model the illusion of free will is absolute. Free will, as we experience it, would be indistinguishable from true free will. You said that:

unpredictability = free will

is absurd. Maybe, in terms of wishful thinking, but in effect, unpredictability is the only measure of free will! If we could predict the outcome of every choice, we would actually have a demonstration against free will!

What you're proposing is that the illusion of X is the same as X itself.

No, the illusion of X to us is indistinguishable from X. Unless we can simulate the universe (and we can't, according to Lloyd), indistinguishable is effectively, but not truely the same.

Now, maybe you don't care whether true free will exists, but since that's the topic of this forum, saying that it doesn't matter to you is not particularly productive.

I don't care. However, having just come across Lloyd's thoughts, I felt this was opportune, rather than starting a new thread, "Read between the lines: free will doesn't exist (but you have to act like it does)."

Go back to the story of my mother's birthday. If, at each stage, my conscious self has no active part in what's going on, if it's something of a passive witness to the activity of non-conscious modules of my brain, then "I" (this conscious entity which I consider myself to be) didn't choose anything at all. And if that's the case, it makes no sense to say I had any free will in the matter.

Right. And that was the second part of what feels 'right' to me. Both "free will" and "consciousness" are illusory. My question is: how else to act? If I decree that free will does not exist and decide to plop myself down in a chair, and not move, then according to my model, that is not an act of consciousness either! Never mind physical needs motivating one to move later...

You might find the distinction not worth looking into, but if so, why are you posting here?

Same reason as many others... to see my words in print! :D
 
I guess I took the word "consciously" for granted.
Well, in a context like this, you can't take such critical points for granted. There are folks with all kinds of different views around here, and if you don't bother to say "conscious" then someone reading your post has no basis for assuming that it's what you meant.

Anyway, ok, now we're more clear. Thanks.

And you are saying that "consciously" would be an illusion
No, just that it might. Then again, it might not. To me that's the issue that has to be determined, and I can't say that enough is known at this point to make the call.

Consciousness, or self-awareness, certainly exists (right?). Since we debate the word decision, I think we also agree that decisions also exist (although maybe our definitions aren't exactly the same).
There is no doubt that consciousness exists, even though there's no clear model of how it arises or how it is sustained. And there's no doubt that decisions exist.

Apparently my definition would have consciousness associated with decision making. That sounds alright to me.
Well, I don't think it's justifiable to define "decision" exclusively in terms of consciousness. But it doesn't sound to me like that's exactly what you want to do, anyway. If I read your posts aright (tell me if I don't) then what you're saying is that free will exists when consciousness is the agency of decisions.

If one is conscious, but has no power to make decisions, no free will. Imagine, for example, someone who's completely paralyzed but is aware of what he's feeling and hearing. He's conscious, but can't do anything at all. That person may be said to have free will as far as his thoughts, but no free will as far as what his body does.

On the other hand, the business decision software discussed earlier would not have free will, by your definition, because even though it decides among options, it's not aware of what it's doing, so there's no choice -- it's going to come to the same decision every time if you feed it the same information. It could not freely choose to do otherwise, so no freedom, no will.

Is that correct?
 
First, I'm not complaining, I never even seriously considered the notion of Magic 8 Ball and decisions, you brought it up.
Right, but I brought it up to demonstrate that your definition -- the short one you first proposed -- had problems because it appeared to grant free will to Magic 8 Balls.

I've never considered the 8 Ball a method of arriving at decisions. People arrive at decisions, for various reasons. If they use the 8 Ball, they have decided to use the 8 ball, and that's the *effective* decision. The words on the 8 ball are just words. They wouldn't mean anything to a person who couldn't understand the language.
Yeah, I see what you mean. But look at it this way. Suppose I'm given the job of translating a short article from English to Spanish. Instead of doing it myself, I decide to outsource the job. I send the English manuscript to a friend in Colombia. He sends me back a manuscript in Spanish, which I submit to my client.

Who did the translation?

My friend, of course, because I decided to do nothing and to give the job to someone else. The fact that I decided to outsource it doesn't mean I made any of the decisions regarding which Spanish words to use in place of the English words. Those decisions weren't made by me, but by my friend. The decision regarding outsourcing was not the same as the decision regarding what the Spanish text would be.

Now, suppose that instead of giving the article to a friend, I cut-and-pasted it into Babelfish, clicked "Translate", then cut-and-pasted the resulting Spanish text into a Word document and sent it to my client.

Who did the translation?

The Babelfish program, of course, because I decided not to translate it myself and to have the software do it instead. I don't even know what the article said. The people who developed the Babelfish software didn't do the translation either, because they never even saw the manuscript. The decisions regarding which Spanish words to use in place of the English words in the article were made by the software. True, the programmers established the rules that the program would follow, but they did not perform the task, they did not make the decisions -- the decisions for this specific task were made by the software they created (and created for the explicit purpose of performing such tasks).

By the same token, if I'm asked a question involving a decision, and instead of thinking it through myself, I shake the Magic 8 Ball and simply use the response I recieve as my answer, then who or what made the decision?

Not me. I did nothing. The Magic 8 Ball was the apparatus which yielded the decision. A dumb, irrelevant, unreliable decision to be sure. But still, the agent of decision was the Magic 8 Ball.
 
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In buying it, you have the decision. If you allow the business decision software...to what, buy stocks on its own?...you've also decided that. Kind of like if I let the sprinkler run all day. Is the sprinkler deciding to sprinkle all day? No, I decided to let it sprinkle all day.
That's a good point, and it bears examination.

In the case of the sprinkler, it's not designed to make any decisions.

I have a sprinkler that can be set to allow a certain volume of water thru, then shut off, for example, and to distribute water in various patterns.

But every one of those decisions is made consciously by me. I tell it exactly how much water to use, and I place it on the lawn, and I set the spray pattern.

Business decision software is different.

For example, I can use BDS to answer a question such as "What percentage of next year's budget goes to R&D?"

If I like, I can rely entirely on the software, allow it to arrive at a decision regarding these numbers. If I do that, then I haven't made the decision. Yes, I decided to purchase this software and use it, but that's not the same thing. Just as, if I decide to ask you to decide what shoes I should wear today, it's true that I decided to abide by your decision, but that doesn't change the fact that you made the decision about the shoes.
 
Sure. Why can't both *reflex* and *free will* exist? Does it have to be one or the other?
Oh, I won't argue that both can exist. But considering a single action, it's not possible for it to be both. In other words, human beings can (in theory) exhibit reflexive actions and voluntary (free will) actions. But an action cannot be both reflexive and voluntary. Either I consciously intended to move my leg, or it was a reflex. I can't make a free will choice to move my leg by reflex.

Piggy said:
Well, you can't have it both ways. You can't squeeze out a definition as vague and high-level as "makes decisions" and yet complain that certain methods of arriving at decisions don't qualify.
You say that I can't have it both ways. Why not? Because you say so? If in reality it is both ways, then it doesn't matter what you say I can or can't have? I'd rather talk about what it is, as opposed to any limit you would subjectively impose.
No, not because I say so. Because there's a logical contradiction. I think this is moot now, but if you define "free will" so loosely as to include any decision at all, then you can't turn around and complain that some decisions aren't the result of free will. Why not? Beause your definition necessarily includes them as actions of "free will".

This is a very important point. If when asked to define a term, you say it's X, and X logically includes a, b, and c, you can't then complain that b and c aren't what you meant by X. Because it X was your definition.

I'm sorry, I want to respond to the rest of the posts, but I haven't been sleeping well lately and I absolutely must go to bed now.

More later.
 
Agreeing that the behaviorist controls particular variables in an experimental situation is not the same as agreeing that the behaviorist is not also being controlled.
This response (or is it a stimulis?) seems a straw dog as it doesn't really follow what I said:

A behaviorist "manipulate(ing) the situation, and find(ing) that organisms (including, but not limited to, people) lawfully respond to these manipulations, altering their choices accordingly" is not every bit as constrained by environmental variables as the subjects they study.

Subjects being manipulated, responding lawfully to these manipulations, and altering their choices accordingly are in the process of having their environment constrained by the behaviorist her/himself. To the point, at least, of the behaviorist being in charge of her/his controlled experiment.
For the sake of experiment, I think I'll see if your behavior might be best understood within the four contexts of Skinner's operant conditioning. Wouldn't any behaviorist worth his salt be attempting to manipulate the situation?

1 Positive reinforcement occurs when a behavior (response) is followed by a favorable stimulus (commonly seen as pleasant) that increases the frequency of that behavior. In the Skinner box experiment, a stimulus such as food or sugar solution can be delivered when the rat engages in a target behavior, such as pressing a lever.
2 Negative reinforcement occurs when a behavior (response) is followed by the removal of an aversive stimulus (commonly seen as unpleasant) thereby increasing that behavior's frequency. In the Skinner box experiment, negative reinforcement can be a loud noise continuously sounding inside the rat's cage until it engages in the target behavior, such as pressing a lever, upon which the loud noise is removed.
3 Positive punishment (also called "Punishment by contingent stimulation") occurs when a behavior (response) is followed by an aversive stimulus, such as introducing a shock or loud noise, resulting in a decrease in that behavior.
4 Negative punishment (also called "Punishment by contingent withdrawal") occurs when a behavior (response) is followed by the removal of a favorable stimulus, such as taking away a child's toy following an undesired behavior, resulting in a decrease in that behavior.
I chose Positive punishment as the most likely context for your first non-response (stimulis) here. It is frustrating to have questions other the one you asked answered.

Is this adverse stimulis one the environment had anticipated? Perhaps Skinner was onto something after all.

I wish you would be more specific about what constaints, reinforcers, punishers you are talking about.
Ay, there's the rub. The whole reason for studying them in an experimental context is that it it much too uncontrolled to study them adequately in vivo. I do not, though, think it improbable that the laws of behavior stop working at the lab door. (I imagine someone challenging a chemist: "sure, the chemicals react that way in your lab, but not in my body!")
Can't be Negative reinforcement as the adverse stimulus doesn't seem to have been entirely removed. Leaving Positive punishment once again?

Or perhaps you intended to withhold reinforcement in hopes of eliminating my behavior of asking questions, most of which you seem unwilling to answer in a straightforward fashion.

Is the phenomenon sometimes called countercontrol one? Sometimes the objects of study may resist. Or is that a bad subject, given that this phenomenon seemingly undermines behaviorist theory of choice being a function of environmental variables.

I'll let Skinner explain it by some lines he wrote (in Science and Human Behavior):
Please note that Skinner is speaking there about reactivity, with emphasis on reactivity to aversive control. Aversive control (which our society uses, and which Skinner advocates against in "Beyond Freedom and Dignity) is, in part because of a subject's reactivity to it, not nearly as effective as control through reinforcement. That is the point of Skinner's quote. He can state it rather confidently, because there is excellent evidence.

It is not utterly irrelevant to our current question, but it is only a small part of it. We react against negative control, in part because it is salient. Control through reinforcement may be much more subtle, and because it is not seen (by our society) as a threat to our freedom, it is more acceptable. (When it is excessive, it is seen as a threat--bribes, the "love bombing" of cults, etc., but in general, positive reinforcement is far less prone to countercontrol than is punishment.) In addition, much control of our behavior comes about through the establishment of stimulus control, rather than the simple manipulation of consequences.
In this response (stimulis) you speak against aversive control (Positive punishment) while simultaneously employing it?

What sort of behaviorist employs irony?

What happens to the behaviorist theory that reinforcement is what controls behavior if the behaviorist who tries to control/reinforce his subject is likely to be repaid in kind? Who would be controlling whom given this circumstance
Are you assuming that in any relationship, "control" is a one-way thing? It most certainly is not. Also, why are you artificially removing the behaviorist from her/his environment? There are other factors, aside from the behavior of the subject, that influence the behaviorist's actions. The fact that some come from outside the lab situation does not make them, while inside the lab, part of the behaviorist's "free will".
Guess I'm out of luck hoping for a Positive reinforcement.

That's one thing behaviorists don't like to talk about. Before you can use use Positive reinforcement to control behavior, you must often first deprive the subject of whatever is planned to be used as a reinforcer.

But that has little to do with my original question in all of this. You said:

How does the behaviorist/scientist chose to propose his specific hypothesis as an explanation of natural phenomena (behavior), designing experimental studies that test this prediction/concept for accuracy, etc, if the environmental variables controlling this process of proposing, designing, and testing are not in his control?
A behaviorist's experiment-running behavior is determined by her/his interaction with environment; it is both shaped by contingencies and an instance of "rule-governed" behavior (an entirely different can of worms we can get into if you would like--the cliff-notes version is that we are reinforced for following rules, which allows us to learn the gist of some complex behaviors very quickly). What it is not, is a freely chosen spontaneous creation, independent from environmental influences.
A non-answer I find much less irritating. I sense an extinction stimulis.

Oh, but of course: Skinner found invoking terms such as "hypotheses", "concepts", or "experimental studies" not relevant in functional analysis as the mental activity these terms imply is really just behavior and that the only non-circular way to explain behavior is to appeal to something non-behavioral like the environment.
Other authors find the terms helpful, as part of the rules one learns to follow in order to engage in such behavior
You know, this response (stimulis) is actually pretty funny. I'll give it a Negative reinforcement.

Mercutio, is our dialogue here really better understood within Skinner's construct (forgive the "mentalistic' term) of control/countercontrol? Theoretically, (again, forgive the "mentalistic" term) that would be me, attempting to control the situation by pointing out the apparent incoherence (damn, not another "mentalistic" term) of your position, and you, countercontrolling through vague and evasive answers?
Your failure to understand could be the result of the form of my answers, certainly. It could also be due to prior learning. Without adequate controls, it is mere speculation.
Nothing there. Definitely extinction. But withholding reinforcement for behavior previously reinforced (in order to eliminate that behavior) must be done consistently for it to work effectively, Mercutio.

Is the only way the controller can escape from the possibility of countercontrol to give up trying to control the actions of someone else?

Probably.
One does not have to *try* to control the actions of someone else in order to actually control them; nor does "not trying" guarantee escape from countercontrol. Also, control is not always something that one tries to escape from (my classes are full of people who have paid good money to have someone attempt to control and influence their behavior; therapists, personal trainers, investment consultants, etc., can all say the same).

The biggest bit of advice (based on the research, of course) for someone trying to "escape from the possibility of countercontrol" would be to A) use positive reinforcement rather than punishment to control, and B) to use natural, rather than artificial, reinforcers whenever possible. And to keep up to date on the behavioral literature.
I found your previous extinction stimulus to be a positive compared to this Positive punishment.

Thinking about it, would that make this response (stimulis) a Negative punishment?
 
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Well, I don't think it's justifiable to define "decision" exclusively in terms of consciousness. But it doesn't sound to me like that's exactly what you want to do, anyway.

I think that when we're talking about decisions, what is and what ain't, the entity in question has to appreciate the fact that a decision is being made. This appreciation, I guess, would be contingent on *something* that is present in a person and not in a magic eight ball. It appears I'm not prepared to precisely nominate something for that something.

If I read your posts aright (tell me if I don't) then what you're saying is that free will exists when consciousness is the agency of decisions.

That sounds good at the moment (and thanks for supplying it!) but I reserve the right to tweak in the future, with your help no doubt!

If one is conscious, but has no power to make decisions, no free will. Imagine, for example, someone who's completely paralyzed but is aware of what he's feeling and hearing. He's conscious, but can't do anything at all. That person may be said to have free will as far as his thoughts, but no free will as far as what his body does.

From a religious perspective the thought is enough. We may or may not be interested in that, just throwing it out there.

Free will...if it's a *mental* thing...well...thoughts are also mental sorts of things. If the mind is unable to effect bodily movements that doesn't mean a decision hasn't been made. Rather, a decision has been made, but it is effectively futile. Kind of like if someone wants to kill someone, gets a gun, pulls the trigger, but there's no bullet so he doesn't kill someone, but the decision and the "will" were still operating.

On the other hand, the business decision software discussed earlier would not have free will, by your definition, because even though it decides among options, it's not aware of what it's doing, so there's no choice -- it's going to come to the same decision every time if you feed it the same information. It could not freely choose to do otherwise, so no freedom, no will.

Well...it might not come to the same decision every time as there could be random number generating at play or something. I'm not sure if that would be helpful or beneficial in that kind of software, but maybe it would be, even if it's just to add some mutations or variation to general rules that could later be analyzed.

I relate it to a glorified calculator. You press the buttons, it spits something out, but what does it actually spit out? Digital lines. Those lines don't mean anything except to us. The meaning exists for humans, who see the arrangement of microscopic dots. Then we do something about what we see. A calcuator that produces a product or sum in a vacuum...it may lead to later steps (with a given product, then it might activate another machine which could do something like fire a nuclear warhead) but all of that is determined by *humans*, even if it's just in the creation of such machines.

Value and meaning are just as vital to my definition of free will it appears, so it's getting more complicated.

-Elliot
 
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[eta--sorry, Elliot--this addresses Pres. Bush's post above yours]

Ah, very helpful! It seems clear now, I was overestimating your understanding of behaviorism. It is nice to see you trying to use the vocabulary, but you keep missing key elements, as you did earlier in your reading of Skinner.

Your examples here of positive and negative reinforcement and punishment, for instance, miss a key, defining element. You do look at whether something is presented or removed; this is good. This defines the "positive" or "negative" portion, respectively. But then you dwell on whether something is "frustrating", "irritating" or "funny" in determining whether to call it punishment or reinforcement. This is quite wrong; those characteristics are utterly irrelevant in defining a reinforcer or punisher. Rather, a reinforcer is defined by an increase in (or maintainance of) rate of behavior, and a punisher is defined by a decrease in rate of behavior. Your behavior of responding to my post was not punished by my post; one could (although the sample size is small) argue that it was in fact reinforced by it, as you did continue responding.

It is encouraging to see that you are attempting to employ the proper vocabulary; I hope you continue to work on it. Not understanding the vocabulary is, of course, quite an obstacle in trying to understand the points made. Perhaps once you understand them, then you can disagree with them coherently. Or better yet, you might agree with them.
 
The fact that I decided to outsource it doesn't mean I made any of the decisions regarding which Spanish words to use in place of the English words. Those decisions weren't made by me, but by my friend. The decision regarding outsourcing was not the same as the decision regarding what the Spanish text would be.

I clipped the background of the example which can be seen I think three posts above.

Yes, you are correct, the decision to outsource is certainly different from the, most likely, partially subjective decisions regarding translation done by a human.

Now, suppose that instead of giving the article to a friend, I cut-and-pasted it into Babelfish, clicked "Translate", then cut-and-pasted the resulting Spanish text into a Word document and sent it to my client.

Who did the translation?

If you had any sense, you'd blame Babelfish via a disclaimer attached to the result! And as such, someone would associate Babelfish to the result. If you didn't credit Babelfish (or anyone/anything else for that matter), someone would assume it was you.

By the same token, if I'm asked a question involving a decision, and instead of thinking it through myself, I shake the Magic 8 Ball and simply use the response I recieve as my answer, then who or what made the decision?

This is a decent analogy.

Regarding the translations...you can't make sense of the *result*, which is why you ask someone to produce it for you. The desired result is outside of your capacity, so you can't decide to do a translation. Because you don't even know how. So you can only make one decision, and that decision is to outsource, be it to a person or a program.

Now...is the Babelfish translation a decision? I think it's more like a calculation made by a calculator. The input can only result in a pre-determined output.

The 8 ball is quite different from an automated translator. First, it's it is not influenced by *meaning*. The translator attaches two things together based on an association created by humans. The 8 ball is influenced...not exactly by randomness, right? The force with which it's shaken, gravity, fluid dynamics, all that *determine* which word pops up. But no meaning is involved. Meaning is not inherent to the 8 ball system, whereas meaning is in the design of the translator. And when does meaning enter the 8 ball system? When we recognize the word and apply it for a particular result.

I'm not sure if I made any substantial point in the previous paragraph, that's just my impression from thinking about the two entities.

Not me. I did nothing. The Magic 8 Ball was the apparatus which yielded the decision. A dumb, irrelevant, unreliable decision to be sure. But still, the agent of decision was the Magic 8 Ball.

What decision did it yield? You mean yes or no?

If the 8 Ball comes up yes...yes what? Yes to what? Let's say I'm sitting at my desk and just for the hell of it I shake the 8 ball, and it comes up no. No? No to what? No to me just shaking the 8 ball? But I just shook the 8 ball, what does no mean? In a vacuum, the word means *nothing*, or, the meaning of the word can be incomprehensible or irrelevant.

The 8 ball doesn't care whether or not there is a *reason* for being shook. If I am playing catch with my brother and I use the 8 ball, the 8 ball will produce a result. An irrelevant result. If I ask a question and the shake the 8 ball, the 8 ball behaves in the same way. What, all of a sudden it's relevant? How can that be? Did it know it was supposed to be relevant in that situation? If so, why didn't it know that when it was being tossed back and forth? But it knows nothing, it does things based on shaking, and it has no meaning inherently.

Again I don't know if I'm making any points, perhaps you could glean them for me and tell me what I'm trying to say. :)

-Elliot

(Mercutio, your conversation with the President is beyond my ken, and I'm grateful that Piggy deigns to speak to me at my level.)
 
chriswl, I think you might want to hold off before you slap a woo label on the notion that aggregation is insufficient to fully explain the behavior of macro-level systems.

It seems like some sane folks are interested in the theory.

Originally Posted by Publishers Weekly review of A Different Universe: Reinventing Physics from the Bottom Down:
"In the search for a "theory of everything," scientists scrutinize ever-smaller components of the universe.... Stanford physics professor [Robert] Laughlin, awarded the 1998 Nobel Prize for Physics, argues that smaller is not necessarily better. He proposes [that] if we try to analyze things too closely, we risk not understanding how they work on a macro level. In many cases, the whole exhibits properties that can't be explained by the behavior of its parts."

Originally Posted by Amazon review of Emergence: From Chaos to Order:
"Emergence" is the notion that the whole is more than the sum of its parts. John Holland, a MacArthur Fellow known as the "father of genetic algorithms," says this seemingly simple notion will be at the heart of the development of machines that can think for hemselves.

Woo?
No. In fact I don't necessarily disagree with any of that. But you were going much further.

You have to understand the perspective from which scientists are writing when they make statements like "the whole exhibits properties that can't be explained by the behavior of its parts." It is taken for granted that they have physicalist conception of the universe. They don't feel they need to spell that out (though in their popular writings perhaps they should).

I know you don't like philosophy, but philosophers are the ones who study the various nuances of meaning in cases like this. What you are proposing, in philosophical terms is known as strong emergence, and the passages you quoted are scientists arguing for weak emergence.

Two concepts of emergence

The term ‘emergence’ often causes confusion in science and philosophy, as it is used to express at least two quite different concepts. We can label these concepts strong emergence and weak emergence. Both of these concepts are important, but it is vital to keep them separate.

We can say that a high-level phenomenon is strongly emergent with respect to a low-level domain when the high-level phenomenon arises from the low-level domain, but truths concerning that phenomenon are not deducible even in principle from truths in the low-level domain.1 Strong emergence is the notion of emergence that is most common in philosophical discussions of emergence, and is the notion invoked by the British emergentists of the 1920s.

We can say that a high level phenomenon is weakly emergent with respect to a low-level domain when the high-level phenomenon arises from the low-level domain, but truths concerning that phenomenon are unexpected given the principles governing the low-level domain. Weak emergence is the notion of emergence that is most common in recent scientific discussions of emergence, and is the notion that is typically invoked by proponents of emergence in complex systems theory.
http://consc.net/papers/emergence.pdf#search="emergence downward causation"

What you are proposing is strong emergence with an extra twist - the emergent properties somehow cause changes in the underlying level. This has a name too, downward causation and it is even less likely to be supported by scienists. Downward causation makes little sense - it would require atoms to cease to be simple primitive elements responding in simple ways to fundamental forces but to be somehow aware of the "bigger picture".
 
What you are proposing is strong emergence with an extra twist - the emergent properties somehow cause changes in the underlying level. This has a name too, downward causation and it is even less likely to be supported by scienists. Downward causation makes little sense - it would require atoms to cease to be simple primitive elements responding in simple ways to fundamental forces but to be somehow aware of the "bigger picture".
A set of statements which are 100% correct for any coherent physicalist position; ergo, of course free-will cannot exist.

Mercutio has stated that is his position. I wonder if he "chooses" to actually believe it? ;)

And imo, Pres. Bush is doing an excellent job pointing the fully circular and endless cause-effect-cause-effect (or is it effect-cause-effect-cause? :) ) cycle.
 
What you are proposing is strong emergence with an extra twist - the emergent properties somehow cause changes in the underlying level. This has a name too, downward causation and it is even less likely to be supported by scienists. Downward causation makes little sense - it would require atoms to cease to be simple primitive elements responding in simple ways to fundamental forces but to be somehow aware of the "bigger picture".
Gotcha. No, I'm not advocating downward causation. I am saying that (1) downward causation would have to be true for free will to exist, and (2) it hasn't been eliminated yet.

I don't see why in the world an atom would have to be "aware" of anything for downward causation to occur.

As I said before, there does not exist any model which allows the emergent "i" to add information to the brain's feedback loop. But the field is young, and we don't know what we'll find.

Remember, the discoveries of QM at one time also "made little sense".

That's all I'm saying.

If downward causation were proven impossible, and therefore true free will as well, I would hardly be surprised.

I do support theories of strong emergence, however, although these are as yet only possibilities. Nothing's ready for the chisels and tablets, by a long shot.
 
Value and meaning are just as vital to my definition of free will it appears, so it's getting more complicated.
Ok, well, that's really all I was getting at originally. You left these out of your definition. If they're vital, you have to put them in. That's all.

Now I understand where you're coming from. Thanks.
 
Regarding the translations...you can't make sense of the *result*, which is why you ask someone to produce it for you. The desired result is outside of your capacity, so you can't decide to do a translation. Because you don't even know how. So you can only make one decision, and that decision is to outsource, be it to a person or a program.
I speak Spanish and have taught it and done translations, so actually, I could have chosen to do the work in this example. Perhaps I should have explained. FWIW.
 
Your behavior of responding to my post was not punished by my post; one could (although the sample size is small) argue that it was in fact reinforced by it, as you did continue responding.
Call it a spontaneous recovery from your extinction stimulis. A phrase like that ought to baffle just about everybody.

Who else here is arguing the dogma of radical behaviorism, anyhow?

You seem to think (damn those "mentalistic" terms) that this - the validity of radical behaviorism, the very point at issue (between you and I, at least) - has been conceded. You seem entirely unaware that any argument assuming a controversial point not agreed to by the other side constitutes a fallacy, Mercutio.

Do you actually believe that all practice must be in accord with Skinner's theories? Guess I should be grateful you're not quoting the Bible to justify religious superstition.

Why are you arguing for radical behaviorism on a Religion and Philosophy thread, anyhow? This belief system seems just awful philosophically. No freedom or creative innovation, no dignity, a lack of respect for the autonomy of others... here's a line of Skinner's I neglected to bold from a couple posts back:

This is only a special case of the general principle that the issue of personal freedom must not be allowed to interfere with the scientific analysis of human behavior. As we have seen, science implies prediction and, insofar as the relevant variables can be controlled, it implies control. We cannot expect to profit from applying the methods of science to human behavior if for some extraneous reason we refuse to admit that our subject matter can be controlled.
Or this, concerning his concept of reinforcement (from BF Skinner's The Behavior of Organisms: An Experimental Analysis):

The simplest contingencies involve at least three terms -- stimulus, response, and reinforcement -- and at least one other variable (the deprivation associated with the reinforcement) is implied.
Ah, who really cares about partially starving pigeons until they learn to play ping-pong?
 
Ok, here's where you lose me.
Random does not mean uncaused.

In the context of this discussion it does. We are drawing a distinction between a caused event and an uncaused event (random).

All events have causes.

I am inclined to agree but can accept a logical objection.

Deterministic events have only one possible outcome for a given set of causes (including environmental variables). Random events do not have only one possible outcome, requiring that the range of outcomes be expressed in terms of probabilities.

I agree, please apply your logic to your own observations.
 

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