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Explain this statistics/probability thing for me

Hi, everybody!

Whatever you do, don't pick 1-2-3-4-5-6-7-... (...) The result is that in the Norwegian national lottery game "Lotto", the combination 1-2-3-4-5-6-7 is the most popular, and would result in a ridiculously low payout. I suspect this is true for many other lotteries, too.
(...)

Something like this has happened here in Germany,
see http :// tinyurl.com / 9zmue

In the German lottery you have to "predict" 6 out of 49. Usually a few dozen people get 5 of the 6 right and get several tens of thousands of euros.

Once, (April 10th, 1999) the numbers 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 26 were drawn. 38008 people had five of those right, guess which five. So instead of tens of thousand of euro, they just got DM 379.90 = EUR 194.24 each.
 
EDIT: I've now sent an email to Norsk Tipping about this, and I'll let you know the answer if I get one. It would be nice to know if this actually is an urban legend or if it is true.

Excellent! Maybe it's a masochistic skeptic character trait, but I would love to be proven wrong. (...and a smart-ass...) :)
 
I got an answer from Norsk Tipping, and it turns out that you are correct, Ririon.

The combination 1-2-3-4-5-6-7 is always the most played combination, every week throughout the year! In fact, it is so popular that the winnings for this combination will be somewhere between 3500 and 4000 Norwegian kroner, which translates to a mere $5-600 USD. Compare that to the "normal" winnings of a million kroner ($140 000 USD) or more...

Other popular combinations are those that create a pattern on the betting slip, or combinations with even spacing, like 2-4-6..., 1-3-5-7... or 1-5-10-15.
Running numbers other that 1-2-3-4... are also popular. Common for all of these combinations is that they will yield extremely disappointing payouts.

I can only conclude that lotto players are even bigger fools than I could even begin to imagine...
 
Another interesting bit: How many of you know at least one person that claims to have ALMOST won the lottery, except they forgot to play that week or whatever, and the numbers they always play came up?
 
I wasn't suggesting that you were making up the probability, I was suggesting that you were making up fact that anyone would take the bet. What university was that again?

~~ Paul
I think the point is you only play against drunks.

I suspect the time it takes to explain the hypothesis to them and the high odds of them going "Pssh!" and stagering off in the middle means it's not worth doing.
 
I have a friend who insists that if you play the same lottery numbers every day, you have an increased chance of winning than if you had played different numbers every day.

I tried to explain that past results are not indicative of future outcomes, but that's the best I can do. I'm not a math person. I know that her argument is bogus, but I'm not smart enough to explain it to a layperson.

Can any math people here help me out...in layman's terms?

Thanks.

My opinion if I'm understanding this correctly, is that your friend would be correct, if and only if all the same equipment was used for each and every draw, for all time. After a while, certain patterns from mechanical bias would show and these could be used towards your advantage.

Another issue is that these patterns could be used towards others' advantage, so while more people might win, the share would get smaller and smaller.
 
To tell a bit of my background, I'm supposed to graduate from a business polytechnic within a year, so obviously fumbling like this with statistical math is a bit of an embarrassment. So, I decided to redeem myself by figuring the correct formula that'll arrive to that number. It's 39/7 times 38/6 times [...] 33/1. To learn is to find solutions to the mistakes one makes. ;)
BTW, your original number is known as "39 permute 7". The other number is "39 choose 7" or "39 combine 7". So, do you know what "39 choose 32" would be equal to?

But here's the catch: the record is only guaranteed to approach the theoretical value, not reach it or balance around it.
You are misunderstanding. The probability of getting within a set distance from the true mean approaches 1. But that doesn't mean that the sample mean is guaranteed to approach the true mean.

I remember this example from an episode of Numb3rs. Maybe I should start watching that again?
The answer to the Monty Hall problem is "it depends". If someone doesn't know that, or understand what it depends on, one can make a lot of money off of them.

Well, the odds of it not coming up in one game are 15,380,936 / 15,380,937 or 0.999999934984455. So, assuming one game per week, the odds of the number not coming up in 50 years is 0.999999934984455^(50*52) = 0.999830974. That makes the odds of it coming up in 50 years 1 - 0.999830974 = 0.000169026 or roughly 1 in 5916. This is assuming Excel hasn't made any rounding errors.
There's actually another way to calculate it: multiply 1 by 50 by 52, divide by 15,380,936, then multiply by -1. Finally, put that number into Excel's exp() function.

This doesn't give the exact answer; it gives an approximation. But for large numbers, it's very accurate (in this case, it gives .999830974 as well), and calculating it your way will require approximation, anyway. Plus, if you ever find yourself with nothing but a slide rule, you can use my formula. In fact, if you get good at it, you can calculate a good approximation in your head.

Before any bias occurs, however, we can say that in a sufficiently long series of trials, strings of bias will be equally likely to occur either way.
But that statement is either true for any series of trials, even short ones, or true of none of them. If you flip a coin twice, you're just as likely to get 2 heads as to get 0.
 
I've also heard this, and I suspect that it might be an urban legend. I've heard it claimed that this particular sequence is popular amongst scientists, since it would constitute a "proof" that this sequence is just as likely as any other.

No; it isn't a UL. The Florida lottery (at least when it was weekly) counted about 300 tickets with 1-2-3-4-5-6 every week. I don't know what it is since they have gone to semiweekly.

Another pattern is that people seem to put a lot of dates in their picks. So 1-12 are common, 13-31 are a bit less common, and 32-49 (or whatever the hell it is) are the least common.
 
In the German lottery you have to "predict" 6 out of 49. Usually a few dozen people get 5 of the 6 right and get several tens of thousands of euros.

Once, (April 10th, 1999) the numbers 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 26 were drawn. 38008 people had five of those right, guess which five. So instead of tens of thousand of euro, they just got DM 379.90 = EUR 194.24 each.
But at least those people won something significant - had they chosen a different set of numbers (like random-looking ones), they would have won zero!
 
I would think that the only way to reduce the odds is to pick 7 numbers and premutate them , so if any 6 were correct you would win .Cost you 6 times as much of course .
Actually the correct term for this kind of thing is a combination , permutation implies order as well .
Best way to increase your chance of a win is to play once a week instead to twice a week and double your stake to £2 .Even better is to save the £2 each week and buy premium bonds instead .Trouble with that is that it takes a year before you can buy any and the odds are poor since only the interest is in the prize pool , but you do keep your money .
They don't call the lottery the ' Idiots Tax ' for nothing .
 
You are misunderstanding. The probability of getting within a set distance from the true mean approaches 1. But that doesn't mean that the sample mean is guaranteed to approach the true mean.
Wrong. As the sample size goes to infinity, the sample mean goes to the true probability.

But that statement is either true for any series of trials, even short ones, or true of none of them. If you flip a coin twice, you're just as likely to get 2 heads as to get 0.
Yes. So?
 
Really? Care to offer anything to dispute it? You're disagreeing with a basic precept of probability theory here, and all you can offer in support of it is "Wrong". You're really trying my patience.

As the sample size goes to infinity, the sample mean goes to the true probability.
The mathematically valid statement is that given a particular range, the probability that the sample mean is within that range goes to 1. That is the correct statement. Everyone who actually understands probability, rather than simply pretending to on message boards, knows that that is the correct statement. Your version is the mutilated popular version. It's one thing to be ignorant about mathematics, but quite another to try to lecture people who know more than you.

Perhaps you would like to present a mathematical proof of your claim? Hmmm?

So you are either explicitly making a false statement, or implicitly making one.
 
Perhaps you should read my previous post, which is just a handfull of posts above this one? ;)

I read it, but I thought a report from Florida would be appropriate because, if you have read the posts, you will know that someone was wondering if it was a European phenomenon.
 
I read it, but I thought a report from Florida would be appropriate because, if you have read the posts, you will know that someone was wondering if it was a European phenomenon.
Ok, I just thought that you maybe missed my post where I reported back on the answer I got from Norsk Tipping.

That said, I would have been EXTREMELY surprised if things were different in Florida. I mean, Americans aren't exactly smarter than Europeans... :D
 
have anybody heard about some "cool series" to be lottery winner?, I mean does someone remember to get 5-10-15-20-25-30 in their national lottery contest?... it should have been some news if it has happened.. or something like 1-1-1-1-1-1... personally I can't.. but I would like to see if it has happened
 
I have a friend who insists that if you play the same lottery numbers every day, you have an increased chance of winning than if you had played different numbers every day.

I tried to explain that past results are not indicative of future outcomes, but that's the best I can do. I'm not a math person. I know that her argument is bogus, but I'm not smart enough to explain it to a layperson.

Can any math people here help me out...in layman's terms?

Thanks.

That was exactly the line used by a lottery company over here for a few years. (They have dropped it since, whether voluntarily or by coercion, I don't know.) A man sitting on a luxury yacht in the North of Queensland, saying "I play to win, and I do".
 

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