sunmaster14
Penultimate Amazing
- Joined
- Feb 24, 2014
- Messages
- 10,017
If they feel strongly enough about it, then of course they should, as much as they should react to...anything else at all, really.
Ok, so what if people felt so strongly about an incredibly wealthy, elderly Jewish man being racist against blacks that it stoked their own latent anti-Semitism and gave them an urge to hurl anti-Semitic invective at Sterling. Of course they're allowed to give in to their urge, but should they?
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But that doesn't matter once the information for whatever reason becomes known, it is absolutely, 100% irrelevant to how people should respond to public facts.
I disagree for two reasons. First, depending on how discreet the racism was, it's not nearly as bad as overt racism. All that really matters are observable actions. I have friends who may privately believe that I should and will burn in hell because of my religious beliefs (or lack thereof), but as long as they treat me well (as they do), I don't really care. Second, there is a legal doctrine called "fruit of the poisoned tree." The idea there is that in order to discourage illegal searches by police, any evidence that results from an illegal search, even several levels removed from the original breach, should be excluded. Even though this is not a legal proceeding, I think a similar doctrine should apply, at least to some degree. Evidence of somebody's evil character, illegally or unethically obtained, should be discounted somewhat in order to discourage such breaches in the future.
Bottom line is that the fact that Sterling's racist comments were made in private is a mitigating factor, or at least it should be in theory. Perhaps not much of one in this particular case, but I can think of other instances which could arise where the differences between overt and private comments would be quite meaningful.