It seems that you already presume "purely subjective" when you write "experience." Otherwise, I can't see a reason for you to draw a contrast between "experience" and "objective existence."davidsmith73 said:My claim is that the question exists as an experience. I cannot see you disagreeing with this since the alternative is to suppose that it exists objectively.
Again, you seem to presume "purely subjective." Ryle describes this in many discussions of "category mistakes."You say yourself that you do not deny that experiences exist (which I am curious for you to explain why given your current stance).
What is so different about a question and and observation? You make many presumptions. First and foremost seems to be the presumption that the question is not fully traceable to chemical and electrical events within your body. This flies in the face of all the evidence to the contrary.The experience of a question is different to the experience of redness, so we can say their qualia (the way they feel) are different.
Once again, you presume the existence of the very thing you wish to falsify. We're not talking about experience here; we're talking about this magical, immaterial "qualia."So here, we would be trying to falsify the existence of a thing while at the same time acknowledging that the falsification process requires that the thing exists.
No, I defined the "soul" as animating you. I took a parallel path to yours by baldly asserting that you can not be animated without a soul and QED'd it in the same lame way you are trying to QED "qualia."Where your soul parallel breaks down is where you cannot explain why the soul is responsible for the experience of a question. You have evoked a separate entity to account for the ability to pose a question. I am saying that the actual question is the entity that needs to be falsified. When you realise this, the paradox becomes clear and there is no empty assertion.
Now, can you, at long last, present a way to falsify "qualia?"
Why do you not deny the existence of experience?
Dennet mentioned that his critics accused him of creating straw man arguments. I agree with his critics with particular reference to the above. What does “special†mean in this context? [/B][/QUOTE]