A long winded but careful response to Humber
Humber,
I'm impressed. These are nearly coherent replies but still wrong. But I applaud your coherency. I take a great deal of care to try to understand your comments so please do me the same service, as you tend to reply to a perception of the comments that's not close to what is intended. A careful reading and a little bit of thought before replying would be appreciated. I've read a lot of your posts and these same types of error and misconceptions appear throughout so please take a look-carefully. The problem with this style is that it starts to look like a beginners physics text and this is probably not appreciated by the posters as brevity is appreciated.
Incorrect, and the same folksy mistake. At no time is there a relative speed, anything other than 120mph. When at 100m that is true, at 1m and 1mm.
The distance between the vehicles falls as they approach, but the rate of change is constant. That is, measuring that change in distance over time, gives the relative speed and that is constant. There can be no "closing speed" and "relative speeds", that become more closely aligned as the cars approach, And no, there is no "sweet spot, when d =0 .
The misunderstanding here Humber is that I and Spork actually know what relative velocity mean and his statement is correct. The "closing speed" is used in various areas to discuss the idea of how fast it appears that the relative speed between two objects is changing. This is a semantics issue and not an issue in understanding. So even though the cars pass at 120 mph, the instantaneous distance between them is not increasing or decreasing at that point so the "closing speed" is 0mph. On Collision courses the closing speed always is the relative velocity of the two objects. On non-collision courses between two objects, the closing speed is a function of velocity of the objects and the path they are on and are not numerically equal except at infinity so this was why Spork made his comment to highlight this subtlety.
The others concerns balloons that accelerate with zero time, which implies infinite force, and that NB balloons have no gravitational potential energy.
With regards to this issue, I think you missed the point of Spork's video in the car. For a NB balloon, the balloon occupies a space that air would normally have occupied. The air weighs the exact same as the balloon that is occupying the space. This is why it is neutrally buoyant. Once this is understood the issue becomes clear: It's an old Jedi mind trick of one's own brain. The brain perceives the balloon as an object and normally objects have mass and react to f=ma. In this case the overall object is just a separated region of the medium with the overall same mass. Since it was not obvious, I'll point this out. The reason Spork and I were discussing the mass properties is that even though the region (balloon) has the same weight as the air it is displacing, it doesn't have the same mass distribution. This is why the balloon in the car demonstrated the "torque effects" illustrated. So even though the car completely simulated the "gust" effects in the wind via acceleration/deceleration and curves (which is all just acceleration if it is represented as a vector), The overall balloon maintained its relative position in the airmass but generated torques illustrating the existence of the acceleration. So, the point was that the NB Balloon is behaving just like the air that would normally occupy the same volume except for the mass property effects shown. The balloon nor the air in the car reacted instantaneously but it reacted at the same speed as the medium which I believe to be the speed of sound in the media. But since it reacts at the exact same speed of the media in bulk, for the purposes of the discussion,
it reacts immediately-same as the surrounding media. This does not imply infinite force contrary to what you stated. This was the subtlety of Spork's video and I'm sure it was hoped by the presenters that "bright" students watching this would observe all these effects and learn something. I can't make the claim to be "bright" but I sure learned something.
With regards to potential energy, the NB balloon has no potential energy with respect to the ground because it occupies a volume containing the equivalent mass of air as the balloon. When someone moves the balloon, a volume of mass of air would move in to take its place. Since the air has the same mass as the balloon, any change in height of the NB balloon is accompanied by an opposite change in height of an airmass of the same size so m(balloon)gh=-m(air equiv)gh. Therefore if one moves the balloon up or down there is no change in PE. This is the subtlety that we didn't want to bludgeon most readers with as it is normally assumed it is understood. When questions are asked, it makes sense to explain-or as the phrase goes "Otherwise we'll be here all day!" Sheesh-we sure exceeded that one so maybe its worthwhile after all being initially concise-lesson learned on my part.
The point about the two cars, it that Spork mistakes differential speed ( two things moving in opposite directions) and two things moving in the same direction, and that mistake appears in the TM.
From an observer in space or even altitude, the surface of the planet and a car may be moving in the same direction, but the vehicle may be moving forwards faster. (That is more than an illusion, but real, and would be necessary say, if the driver wanted to circumnavigate the Equator, in the direction of rotation, but do so in less that 24 hours. )
At no time does the Earth move backwards relative to the car, at any speed including zero. If the car is mentally stopped, or in your parlance, viewed from the frame of the high attitude observer, then the ground still moves forwards but under the car. If the ground is mentally stopped, the car moves forwards.
OK except that
Spork really did understand the issue and didn't misunderstand anything. He actually answered wrt to what was stated.
We have just witnessed the Carteers being corrected on their notions of relative KE, but that is only part of the error of thinking that A hitting B, is the same as B hitting A, based solely on the idea that the relative velocities are the same. From that error, comes scoffing about "most people" thinking that a car hitting a truck, is different from the same truck hitting the car at the same speeds.
"From the frame of our stationary truck", the car is inevitably approaching the at speed. Do you think that at the point of impact, and prior to that, the driver may have applied the brakes and for good reason?
"From the frame of the stationary car" with the truck approaching, would you have your foot on the brake or not?
You have not "corrected" the carteers as your understanding of this is wrong.
Here are the basics:
You seem to think that Kinetic Energy is some sort of intrinsic absolute property of a mass. Your error is the following: KE is only defined for a body with respect to an IRF. The same body moving has two different KEs for two translating reference frames. It is not an intrinsic property. You keep marching out the KE=1/2mv*2 argument but this formula intrinsically assumes a reference frame (which the authors generally neglect to mention because they assume it is obvious.) If one views the same object from a different IRF, it has an actual different KE with respect to that frame in that the KE is a computed scalar property from the vector velocities wrt to that frame and this has nothing to do with it being a non-linear or polynomial that can't be added. In general for any field scalar property, one can translate the underlying vector components to the new target reference frame and recompute the scalar property in the reference frame. Some scalar properties are the same in the two reference frames and some are not. For instance, pressure is a scalar that generally is consistent from one frame to the next but KE is not. It all depends upon how the scalar property is defined over the field.
The proper way to compute KE for any IRF is as stated earlier: Determine the vector velocity of the object in the desired frame and then compute KE=1/2mv*2 with the :"v" in this equation being the "v" determined for this reference frame. It's not the same v as any other reference frame so one will get two different numerical values for the two frames for the same object at the same point in time and space. If one moves from one frame to another, one can compute the KE in the target frame by translating the vector velocity from the inital frame to the target frame and then computing the KE as described. Or one can simply measure the vector velocity in the target frame and compute the KE using 1/2mv*2 (measured v from the target frame) and the answer computed will be the same if there are no errors in the calculation. That is the KE in the initial frame is numerically (and actually) different for the object in question in the second IRF. If you will read this carefully, you will potentially clear up an enormous amount of your confusion.
With regards to the question of brakes. If I couldn't shift into reverse due to time constraints, I would put my foot on the brake to mitigate the ensuing motion that the cars steering wheel is about to partake in wrt to the driver. Brakes are better than no brakes here to mitigate the damage to the driver but not to the car. The car will be worse for wear!
This really is your chance to gain some understanding and not just bluster and insult and post back quickly defending your point. It took me quite a time to write this and I don't intend to do this on future posts but please read it carefully. If you want to refute it, please do so with the same care as it was written. As I don't consider it my job to teach you physics, I think you should recognize I'm going to quite a bit of effort here.
Regards
WindGrins
