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Cooking?

But still as on today it is true.


But your hands and feet, today, don't weigh the same as they did when you were five years old. They probably don't even weigh exactly what they did yesterday.

So you have not always had the same amount of hands and feet.
 
Thanks, Mojo.
Given that type II diabete can lead to the loss of one or more hands or feet, I find Kumar's posted claim that 'we have two hands and two feet' as an absolute fact in questionable taste, to say the least.
 
But your hands and feet, today, don't weigh the same as they did when you were five years old. They probably don't even weigh exactly what they did yesterday.

So you have not always had the same amount of hands and feet.

Talk in today's status. Today my hands & feet are hand & feet only. I think all sensble people can endorss it. Can you say science is A&F today?
 
But still as on today it is true.

What part of the phrase 'temporary condition' don't you understand, Kumar?

Talk in today's status. Today my hands & feet are hand & feet only. I think all sensble people can endorss it. Can you say science is A&F today?

If we talk in today's status, all sensible people will endorse your need to learn English.
You are defending a rather silly argument that your temporary condition of having two hands and feet is more certain the state of scientific knowledge. Is this how you would convince the gullible to ignore their medical diagnoses?
 
Talk in today's status. Today my hands & feet are hand & feet only. I think all sensble people can endorss it. Can you say science is A&F today?

It's certainly more A&F than you having two hand and feet. For one, all we got is the word of an obviously deeply deranged person against all of the existing scientific knowledge. Thanks, but I take the latter any day over anything you might ever say.
 
No, some of them is fingers, thumbs, and toes.




Kumar, people have been telling you for years that science is never "A&F". Why can't you comprehend this basic, simple idea?

Hand is a combination of all these.

Then why other people tell you that other systems work in their observation & experiance, why don't you agree or at least do not oppose?
 
Then why other people tell you that other systems work in their observation & experiance, why don't you agree or at least do not oppose?


Because of the evidence.

Uncontrolled observation and experience are not good forms of evidence, because people are very good at seeing causal connections where there are none.

To take homoeopathy as an example, while there are many anecdotal accounts of self-evident effects, when experiments that control for bias are carried out these effects disappear.

Additionally, homoeopathy is wildly implausible because its principles contradict things that we already know well enough, for example, for computers to be built and to operate reliably enough for us to be having this discussion. Chemistry, physics, and engineering all work reliably enough to be relied upon on a routine basis.
 
Hand is a combination of all these.


You cannot point at a particular atom in your wrist and say that that is where your hand starts; there will always be some uncertainty, just as there always will be in science.

If we use the definition of "A&F" that you are using in your claim that the status of your hand is "A&F", then much of science is also "A&F", at least to the same degree of certainty as your certainty about where your hand starts. In many cases to a much greater degree of certainty.
 
Because of the evidence.

Uncontrolled observation and experience are not good forms of evidence, because people are very good at seeing causal connections where there are none.

To take homoeopathy as an example, while there are many anecdotal accounts of self-evident effects, when experiments that control for bias are carried out these effects disappear.

Additionally, homoeopathy is wildly implausible because its principles contradict things that we already know well enough, for example, for computers to be built and to operate reliably enough for us to be having this discussion. Chemistry, physics, and engineering all work reliably enough to be relied upon on a routine basis.

Is it necessary that everything is to be at par in proving. A toxic substance can show more apparent affects(substance controlled) along with side effects whereas a less & non toxic substance can show less apparent affects(body controlled) with least side affects. Nil affects are not noted.
 
You cannot point at a particular atom in your wrist and say that that is where your hand starts; there will always be some uncertainty, just as there always will be in science.

If we use the definition of "A&F" that you are using in your claim that the status of your hand is "A&F", then much of science is also "A&F", at least to the same degree of certainty as your certainty about where your hand starts. In many cases to a much greater degree of certainty.

Man is man not its different parts are man.
 
Sorry, we discussed much here--in any type. I shall now onwards concentrate on other new matters. Bye for now here. Thanks.
 
...Uncontrolled observation and experience are not good forms of evidence, because people are very good at seeing causal connections where there are none.

To take homoeopathy as an example, while there are many anecdotal accounts of self-evident effects, when experiments that control for bias are carried out these effects disappear.

Additionally, homoeopathy is wildly implausible because its principles contradict things that we already know well enough, for example, for computers to be built and to operate reliably enough for us to be having this discussion. Chemistry, physics, and engineering all work reliably enough to be relied upon on a routine basis.

There you are, Kumar.
As I think of it, cooking is a form of chemistry, too, isn't it?
You could almost say cooking is a daily refutation of homeopathy.
 
Is it necessary that everything is to be at par in proving. A toxic substance can show more apparent affects(substance controlled) along with side effects whereas a less & non toxic substance can show less apparent affects(body controlled) with least side affects. Nil affects are not noted.


Yes, and if a treatment's toxic effects outweigh its positive effects then it will perform worse than placebo in placebo-controlled trials. If a treatment does not perform better than placebo it is not worth using.

It is you, not me, who argues that treatments that do not outperform placebo should still be used
 
Yes, and if a treatment's toxic effects outweigh its positive effects then it will perform worse than placebo in placebo-controlled trials. If a treatment does not perform better than placebo it is not worth using.

It is you, not me, who argues that treatments that do not outperform placebo should still be used

Just asking: Someone previously told that even about 70% disorders can be healed by placebo effect. If So, suppose a healing agent show 70% healing in stidies for those disorders, will it be attributed to healing agent or to placebo?
 
Just asking: Someone previously told that even about 70% disorders can be healed by placebo effect. If So, suppose a healing agent show 70% healing in stidies for those disorders, will it be attributed to healing agent or to placebo?

Neither. The logical conclusion is that the agent's effect is the same as that of a placebo.

Where did you get the 70% figure?
To learn more about placebos
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Placebo
 
Just asking: Someone previously told that even about 70% disorders can be healed by placebo effect.

Wrong. Placebos cannot heal, by definition. Maybe you mean that the placebo effect is measurable during the treatment of 70% of disorders. Maybe you don't know what the hell you're talking about. Yeah, that must be it.
 

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