jjramsey
Graduate Poster
- Joined
- Jun 24, 2005
- Messages
- 1,494
Palimpsest said:You tell me: why should Mark or Luke feel a huge need to mention the spices? If it's such a trivial detail, why is it in even one gospel, let alone two?
Who knows? Who cares? All right, you care. Mentioning the spices adds a little color, and that might have been one reason Mark mentioned it. What, you think it has some special allegorical meaning?
Palimpsest said:Yes, it is a stretch because that's where the gospel ends, at least the earlier versions. You don't get to decide what the author meant to say, especially if your assumption contradicts the verse which says quite explicitly "They said nothing to anyone, because they were afraid."
Here's a thought experiment. Pretend that you are a Christian reading Mark, so you actually believe what was written in it. Now if the women never said anything to anyone, ever, how would Mark even know about them? Presuming that Mark is telling the truth--which is what the intended audience of Mark would assume--at some point, the women would have had to break their silence just for Mark to know that they had been silent in the first place. Does it really take a genius to figure that after the initial shock that kept them silent had faded, they would go and do what the man in white had said, which was to go tell the disciples that Jesus had risen?
Your interpretation that the readers of Mark would conclude that the women's fear kept them clammed up permanently is much more of a stretch.