There are several reasons why I think the above is a mistake.
Firstly, 1 - keep in mind that it is really not relevant what date we have for the oldest extant copy of anyone such as Justyn Martyr using the Septuagint (or any other copy of the OT) to reproduce a passage using the words “pierced” or “dug” or any other such word or sentence. Because what I am suggesting is not that Paul could find any such specific words or sentences actually originally written in the OT.
What I am saying is that Paul believed that the prophecies in the OT meant that a messiah named Jesus, the one and only true messiah, would be crucified by his own people.
Paul did not need to find any such specific written passage in any version of the OT. He simply believed that God had revealed to him that that was indeed what OT messiah prophecy actually meant.
2. The fact that the oldest surviving mention of that passage with those words may come from Justin Martyr c.150AD, by no means precludes the copyist writer of our oldest copy of any of Paul’s letters from c.200AD, using any pre-200AD source of those words to include the mention of Jesus being crucified.
That is - although you may wish to say that 150AD is too late for Paul to have known such OT words or sentences in 50-60AD, that is not necessarily relevant because (apart from other quite obvious reasons, see 3 below), we actually do not know precisely what Paul originally wrote c.50-60AD. What we have as the writing of Paul is not from 50-60AD but in fact from c.200AD, i.e. 50 years (and possibly much more) after that passage in Justyn Martyr.
3. If by c.150AD Justyn Martyr was supposed to have taken that passage from existing copies of the Septuagint or from any of the other Greek translations of the time, then clearly the passage must have already existed in those written Greek translations from a date prior to 150AD.
And afaik, the Septuagint and half a dozen or more similar Greek translations of the OT supposedly date back not to 150AD and the time of Justyn Martyr, but actually back to 300BC anyway! So if any of those Greek translations had anything at all like the “pierced” passage in Justyn Martyr, then obviously Jews in that region would have known that version of the passage from centuries before Paul was even born!
If you back up your belief in the biblical and visionary origins of all the content of Pauline epistles only in the general Paul's assertion and not in an analyse of his texts, I don’t know what we are doing here.
Well you don’t say what you mean by
“analysis of his texts”. What do you mean by that, and what do you think is discoverable in Paul’s words that is different from what his words actually say?
I’m simply pointing out what his words actually say. They say that he got his information
“from no man”,
“not of any human origin”, and
“according to scripture”, through his understanding from God because
“God was pleased to reveal his son in me”. That’s what his letters actually say about where he obtained his understanding that Jesus was the messiah.
What you want to do is not to read what Paul actually says, but instead you want to invent things that Paul’s letters do not say at all!
You are trying to claim that because he met Cephas, John, James, Barnabus, that means those people must have told Paul all about Jesus and about his execution … as if you somehow knew that any of those people had definitely known and witnessed Jesus, even though there is no evidence that any of those people had ever known Jesus, no evidence that Paul ever says that any of those people ever told him a single word about Jesus, and even though afaik none of those people ever said they had told Paul anything at all about them witnessing Jesus.
But on the contrary, what Paul’s letters do very clearly say is that he consulted no man about his Jesus beliefs, that his knowledge of Jesus was not of human origin, and that he believed Jesus had died and been raised according to scripture. He believed God had revealed that to him.
Of course, if Paul says this we can’t deny it. Paul’s words are untouchable.
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I'm sorry but I don't find any interest in continuing debating with you about this subject on the basis of your hypothetical hypercriticism and no critical analysis of texts.
I’m not saying Paul’s words are
“untouchable”. On the contrary, I expect that what is written as Paul’s letters (whoever wrote those, and I suspect it was not Paul himself, if indeed Paul ever lived at all).
I am simply pointing out that if you are going to make claims about what Paul knew about Jesus and make claims about him getting that knowledge from people that he met such as James and Cephas etc., then you certainly must show where Paul ever says that in any of his letters. Or at the very least show that people like James and Cephas wrote to say they had indeed met Jesus and told Paul all about it. But on the contrary, Paul says he got no such information from any human person such as any of those people. And nor do any of those people ever say they had witnessed Jesus or ever told Paul any such thing at all.
So when you say that Paul must have got his Jesus information from meeting people like Cephas, James, John, Barnabus or whoever, then you are really guilty of making things up here.
You making up an un-evidenced story to claim that people like Cephas & James must have met Jesus, and must have told Paul all about it. Even though you have no evidence of any such thing at all. And where on the contrary, in Paul’s letters the author actually says he did not get it from any such individuals, and where none of those individuals ever claimed to have met Jesus or told Paul any such thing.
Stick with the actual evidence please.
The evidence here is that Paul’s letters specifically say he did not get his Jesus beliefs from any of those named people that he ever met.