Bart Ehrman on the Historical Jesus

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From Evidence for the historical existence of Jesus Christ:

"What qualifies as good evidence?

In order of quality good evidence is:

1) Contemporary evidence: Evidence that dates to the time the person or event actually happened.

2) Derivative evidence: Evidence that is known to use contemporary record-evidence that has since been lost.

3) Comparative evidence: Evidence that gives details that can be checked against known factors of the time.

A good rule of thumb here is that history records the unusual, the special, and the important; and the amount history records is generally directly proportional to when these factors achieve a critical mass. If a person is said to be important and popular during their lifetime then it is reasonable to expect contemporary evidence, or at the least derivative evidence, documenting this."

Take a good look at the Jesus story:

NO Contemporary evidence, NO Derivative evidence, and what little Comparative evidence there is does a major fail (a slaughter no one else records, an anachronistic and logicality insane census, illogical trials that no one even remarks about)

More over there is NO reference to any Gospel (not so much as a quote) until the 130s. Supposedly Mark was written c70 CE and yet NO one even mentions it or any other Gospel until c130? :boggled: How does that work? How do you not mention an account of the man whose words are the key to the salvation of your immortal soul for nearly 70 years?! :eye-poppi

Finally, why was the first attempt as making a Christian Bible (Marcion c140 CE ) so anti Jewish but not contain John (which can be reasonably argued is so anti Jewish as to be practically antisemitic)?

If Marcion was holding that the god of the Jews (and of this world) was an evil incompetent demiurge (see 2 Corinthians 4:4 for just what this really means) then an altered version of John where Jesus' enemies are "the Jews" would have seemingly fit the bill...but he doesn't use it. Why?



As far as “good evidence” is concerned, the biblical writing is vastly worse than merely failing the tests you describe above.

The gospel writing for example is not only inadmissible on account of being entirely hearsay from writers who did not themselves know any such details. But it is also from anonymous writers describing stories from yet more anonymous people of the past. And never once naming a single traceable person who ever gave the author any credible story/details at all.

As I pointed out to the HJ crowd here many pages back - that sort of gospel testimony would be immediately ruled out as credible evidence in any democratic legal case, on the basis that neither the writer nor his unnamed and unknown sources could be produced to confirm first-hand a single thing that the writer said. That is most definitely NOT credible evidence of what the anonymous authors say about their earlier anonymous sources in a chain of even more anonymous witnesses; - none of whom can be traced or verified in any way at all.

The letters of Paul are barely in a better position, if at all.

In none of his letters does Paul ever claim to have met any living human called Jesus. On the contrary, Paul constantly stresses that his knowledge of Jesus is as a spirit form, about whom Paul has all his “knowledge”, ie in fact his religious beliefs, as he repeatedly tells us, through “scripture”, what he says “is written”, and by what he calls “revelation”.

That is again only a form of hearsay, where in Paul’s case he does not even try to say that anonymous sources had told him details of the life of Jesus. On the contrary, Paul’s source of his hearsay beliefs, ie his religious beliefs, is the OT scripture where he repeatedly stresses he obtains his beliefs according to what “was written”, according to “scripture”, and according to “revelation”.

And that’s apart from the fact that about half the letters bearing Paul’s name are now thought to be fakes, and apart from the fact that we have nothing ever written by “Paul” anyway, and instead (as with all the gospels), what we actually have are copies apparently only written by the Christian faithful themselves centuries later. So even the anonymous hearsay writing of the bible, is only known from yet more anonymous copying made several centuries after any such original writing.

So for reasons such as the above, and numerous other reasons, none of that biblical writing could ever be called genuine or credible “evidence” for anything it says about anyone called “Jesus”. The whole lot is multiply inadmissible on every count imaginable.
 
dejudge,

What do you mean by "believe the Bible"? I mean take all the time you need to think about this, and then give us a considered response. Have a happy new year. This is Hogmanay in Scotland, and I'm going to take full part in whatever festivities may be within my reach.
 
Yes, but then you have to wonder about all the James references in Clement, Hegesippus, Origen and all the other early Church sources. As well as their references to Josephus mentioning James as more influential than Jesus.

They (the early Church Fathers) didn't like Josephus saying that James was the reason Jerusalem was destroyed, and it appears that not long after the Church was in a position to control such things, these Josephan passages disappear from our received versions... How curious.
I am not following your argument (or you are referencing some stuff unknown to me).
Could you expand on your argument.
How does that give credit to Josephan passages?

What I remember is that Origen's silence on Jesus in Josephus is "how curious" category.

These little MJ factoids only ever work when looked at in isolation, they never account for the bigger picture.
Well, that might be true.
 
Thanks for the link- I rarely resort to RationalWiki and that article was a heads-up to use that resource more.

ETA
Happy Hogmanay, Craig B!
I'll be celebrating in classic Spanish style, 12 grapes and all.
Thanks. I've never celebrated it in Spain!
 
What about the other characters who have no birth narrative in the NT? Your HJ is the product of assumption.

Satan the Devil has no birth narrative.
Just like the tooth fairy.

The angel Gabriel has no birth narrative.
Just like the tooth fairy.

God has no birth narrative.
Just like the tooth fairy.

The Holy Ghost has no birth narrative.
Just like the tooth fairy.

I have no birth narrative. You have no birth narrative.



You have exposed that you are just a Bible believer.
Amusing. You like to throw that accusation out, don't you?

Paul's Jesus was a myth as soon as he admitted his Jesus became a powerful god when he was already dead. Paul could not have known anything from the dead.

Why are you promoting these Ghost stories from Paul as if they have historical value.
Paul who? Explain exactly why I should care about the ravings of a loon and later forgers please. It seems that you simply accept them as gospel.


1. There is no birth narrative for Jesus of Nazareth in gMark.
There is no birth narrative for you in the bible therefore you do not exist.

2. Jesus of Nazareth walked on the sea in gMark.
And Harry Potter attended Hogwarts.

3. Jesus of Nazareth transfigured in gMark.
Then Voldimort got peeved.

I cannot assume Jesus was born naturally.
Wait, what? Now you are claiming a divine birth for jebus?

The author of gMatthew used virtually all of gMark and declared that Jesus was born of a Ghost and a Virgin.
Which you have now bizarrely claimed to believe.

The very Christian writers who used gMark admitted Jesus must have been the product of a Ghost.
They admitted it? They admitted the very thing you want to be true?

Why are you using admitted Ghost stories as history?
Spooks are fun for fireside tales.

The entire NT is not historical accounts of Jesus but accounts of what people BELIEVED in antiquity.
If you want flat out bonkers, go to the OT. The NT is all pink and fluffy compared to the outright barbarism of the OT.
 
I am not following your argument (or you are referencing some stuff unknown to me).
Could you expand on your argument.
How does that give credit to Josephan passages?

What I remember is that Origen's silence on Jesus in Josephus is "how curious" category.


Well, that might be true.

I was referring to this:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/James_the_Just

...
In a letter addressed to James from Clement of Rome, James was called as the "bishop of bishops, who rules Jerusalem, the Holy Assembly of Hebrews, and all assemblies everywhere."[3] But like the rest of the early Christians, information about his life is scarce and ambiguous. In the non-canonical Gospel of Thomas, Jesus names James his successor: "The disciples said to Jesus, 'We know that you will depart from us. Who will be our leader?' Jesus said to them, ;Where you are, you are to go to James the Just, for whose sake heaven and earth came into existence.'"[4] Apart from a handful of references in the synoptic Gospels, the main sources for his life are the Acts of the Apostles, the Pauline epistles, the historian Josephus, Eusebius and St. Jerome who also quote the early Christian chronicler Hegesippus and Epiphanus.[5] The Epistle of James in the New Testament is traditionally attributed to him, and he is a principal author of the Apostolic Decree of Acts 15. In the extant lists of Hippolytus of Rome,[6] Dorotheus of Tyre, the Chronicon Paschale, and Dimitry of Rostov, he is the first of the Seventy Apostles, though some sources, such as the Catholic Encyclopedia,[7] state that "these lists are unfortunately worthless"...

James is much better attested outside the bible than Jesus is, and that mention in Josephus is not the only place he is called "Brother Of The Lord".

ETA: Hegesippus:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hegesippus_(chronicler)
...
Eusebius quotes from Hegesippus fifth and last book[13] a long account of the death of James the Just, "the brother of the Lord", given the obscure Greek epithet Oblias, supposed to be a Semitic name in Greek translation.[14] Dr. Robert Eisenman connects "Oblias" with "Protector of the people", as were other 'Zaddikim'.[15] He also transcribes from Hegesippus the story of the election of his successor Simeon, and the summoning of the descendants of St. Jude to Rome by the Emperor Domitian.[16] A list of heresies against which Hegesippus wrote is also cited. Dr. Lawlor has argued (Hermathena, XI, 26, 1900, p. 10) that all these passages cited by Eusebius were connected in the original, and were in the fifth book of Hegesippus. He has also argued (Journal of Theological Studies, April 1907, VIII, 436) the likelihood that Eusebius got from Hegesippus the statement that St. John was exiled to Patmos by Domitian. Hegesippus mentioned the letter of Pope St. Clement I to the Corinthians, apparently in connection with the persecution of Domitian. It is very likely that the dating of heretics according to papal reigns in Irenaeus and Epiphanius—e.g., that Marcion's disciple Cerdon and Valentinus came to Rome under Anicetus—was derived from Hegesippus, and the same may be true of the assertion that Hermas, author of The Shepherd of Hermas, was the brother of Pope Pius I (as the Liberian Catalogue, the poem against Marcion, and the Muratorian fragment all state)...
 
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The gospel writing for example is not only inadmissible on account of being entirely hearsay from writers who did not themselves know any such details. But it is also from anonymous writers describing stories from yet more anonymous people of the past. And never once naming a single traceable person who ever gave the author any credible story/details at all.

As I pointed out to the HJ crowd here many pages back - that sort of gospel testimony would be immediately ruled out as credible evidence in any democratic legal case, on the basis that neither the writer nor his unnamed and unknown sources could be produced to confirm first-hand a single thing that the writer said.
But isn't comparing the evidence required here the same as required in a legal case kind of silly? What is the exact charge here? "Willful existence"? Jesus is 'innocent' of existing until found 'guilty'?

The notion of reasonable doubt is to ensure as best as possible that innocent people go free. "Better a hundred guilty people go free rather than convict an innocent person." But that isn't what is happening here. E.g. "Better a hundred people be thought non-existent rather than think a non-existent person existed." I think a better analogy is trying to gather clues to make a case that there was someone behind a bombing or espionage. We gather the evidence and make a determination of possibility based on that.

... Paul constantly stresses that his knowledge of Jesus is as a spirit form, about whom Paul has all his “knowledge”, ie in fact his religious beliefs, as he repeatedly tells us, through “scripture”, what he says “is written”, and by what he calls “revelation”.
Paul calls Jesus a "man" a couple of times, he calls him the descendent of David and Abraham, and that Jesus was a Jew and a descendent of Jews. He implies Jesus died in Paul's recent past. Paul's Jesus shares commonalities with the Gospels' Jesus, which is generally regarded as being independent of Paul's letters.

That's pretty good evidence in itself for the existence of a historical Jesus. I know you don't regard it as evidence, so there is no way to take this conversation forward. But I do wish you could at least acknowledge that some people regard it as credible evidence, even if you don't.
 
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But isn't comparing the evidence required here the same as required in a legal case kind of silly? What is the exact charge here? "Willful existence"? Jesus is 'innocent' of existing until found 'guilty'?

The notion of reasonable doubt is to ensure as best as possible that innocent people go free. "Better a hundred guilty people go free rather than convict an innocent person." But that isn't what is happening here. E.g. "Better a hundred people be thought non-existent rather than think a non-existent person existed." I think a better analogy is trying to gather clues to make a case that there was someone behind a bombing or espionage. We gather the evidence and make a determination of possibility based on that.



Come on, you are not that silly or naïve. You must realise perfectly well that this situation is exactly analogous to the case of a witness testimony given before the jury in a court trial.

We are in exactly the same position as a Jury - we are judging the witness testimony of the biblical writing to decide if what it says about Jesus is or is not evidence to show that Jesus was a living 1st century human.

However, what has been established by all 21st century democratic legal systems, is that anonymous witness testimony of hearsay must never be put before a jury, for the very obvious reason that such anonymous hearsay is a way of deliberately trying to mislead & defraud the jury into thinking such testimony may have real evidential value, when in fact by definition such testimony cannot possibly be something which is personally known to the witness giving the testimony. It's just a way of trying to dishonestly influence a gullible or unsuspecting jury, and that's why it's never allowed in legal cases.

In the case of the gospels, even the witness giving the testimony is anonymous. In the court analogy that would mean that somebody in court was reading out testimony/claims from something said to have been written by someone other unknown & unnamed person, who could not be produced, and where even the written anonymous testimony admitted that it was itself not the source of it's own claims, but was instead relying on still further unknown unnamed people who could not be produced either!

That is really quite laughably absurd as a claim of any evidence for Jesus. And would never be allowed as "evidence" in any court case.



Paul calls Jesus a "man" a couple of times, he calls him the descendent of David and Abraham, and that Jesus was a Jew and a descendent of Jews. He implies Jesus died in Paul's recent past. Paul's Jesus shares commonalities with the Gospels' Jesus, which is generally regarded as being independent of Paul's letters.

That's pretty good evidence in itself for the existence of a historical Jesus. I know you don't regard it as evidence, so there is no way to take this conversation forward. But I do wish you could at least acknowledge that some people regard it as credible evidence, even if you don't.



Oh, I’m perfectly happy to acknowledge that many people do regard this sort of thing as credible evidence of Jesus. Clearly bible scholars like Bart Ehramn and “almost every trained scholar on the planet”, do regard such words in Paul’s letters not merely as “evidence”, but actually as absolute proof of a human Jesus.

What I am saying is that, far from being the proof which Ehrman, Crossan, Sanders and the rest seem to think it is, that sort of religious superstitious writing from Paul is most definitely not reliable or credible “evidence” to show that Paul’s beliefs were ever true in any of this.

If you would like to quote the actual passages and ref’s that you are thinking of, then we can discuss what those passages actually say and where Paul actually got such ideas. But even without that, there is a fatal problem in what Paul writes. Namely - he most definitely did not know any living Jesus. And he specifically and repeatedly says that he has no such information about Jesus from any man. Instead he says he “knows” all this because “it is written” from “scripture” and according to “revelation”.

He is very clearly and unambiguously saying that his belief in Jesus comes to him from his interpretation of what he thought was prophesised in OT scripture. He thought, and iirc, actually says, this was God’s secret message hidden for all previous time, but now revealed to him (Paul), in fact “revealed in him”, through God. IOW - this is something Paul believes from his religious faith … not from anything anyone has ever told him about knowing a human Jesus.

As Alvar Ellegard says about this in his book (Jesus, 100 years before Christ) - practically everything Paul says about Jesus is theological. Not a description of earthly reality.

You could also try reading Earl Doherty’s explanation of Paul’s theology in his book The Jesus Puzzle, where Doherty goes into a great deal of analytical detail about what Paul’s words actually say in his various letters, and where he also explains how and why Paul’s description is that of a religious theology drawn mainly from his belief in the prophecies of the OT, mixed with what were by Paul’s time, very considerable influences from the mystery religions and gods brought into that region by the Greek, Persian and Roman cultures.

I am not suggesting you should believe word-for-word what authors such as Ellegard or Doherty propose. But what is undeniable from their fully referenced and very full quotes from Paul and the gospel writers, is that those authors were most definitely taking their beliefs from a theology that was established centuries before in their ancient OT. If you doubt that, then get a copy of Randel Helms short book, which is all about how, why and where the gospel writers obtained their Jesus statements from all sorts of passages in the OT (Randel Helms; Gospel Fictions).

Just out of interest - have you read any books from those authors; Ellegard, Doherty, Helms, Wells? Or does all your belief in Jesus come from reading authors sympathetic to belief in Jesus? Because it might useful for many here if they did try to make a properly impartial non-judgemental reading of books by serious sceptic authors such as those.
 
... Just out of interest - have you read any books from those authors; Ellegard, Doherty, Helms, Wells?
Speaking for myself, yes.
Or does all your belief in Jesus
That is a very tendentious way of putting things. The expression "belief in Jesus" is loaded with religious baggage - and you know it. Stop addressing perfectly courteous and reasonable people in this foolish and irritating fashion!
come from reading authors sympathetic to belief in Jesus?
No.
Because it might useful for many here if they did try to make a properly impartial non-judgemental reading of books by serious sceptic authors such as those.
You're at it again. By any normal uses of the word sceptic, I am one, and always have been. Your counter posing "belief in Jesus" with "sceptic" in this discussion of whether there is a historical personality behind the Jesus stories is a transparent way of associating your opponents with Christian belief. It is unworthy of you, if you want to be taken seriously.

ETA Wiki has this to say about recent developments in Wells's thinking.
Wells now allows for the possibility that the central figure of the Gospel stories may be based on a historical character from first-century Galilee ... Sayings and memories of this preacher may have been preserved in the "Q" document that is hypothesized as the source of many "sayings" of Jesus found in both gospels of Matthew and Luke. However, Wells concludes that the reconstruction of this historical figure from the extant literature would be a hopeless task. The updated position taken by Wells has been interpreted by other scholars as an "about-face", abandoning his initial thesis in favor of accepting the existence of a historical Jesus. However, Wells insists that this figure of late first-century Gospel stories is distinct from the sacrificial Christ myth of Paul's epistles and other early Christian documents, and that these two figures have different sources before being fused in Mark.
 
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Please tell us the date of those Greek texts!!
There are 27 identified Greek manuscripts from the Qumran caves. I'm not sure of the exact dates of those particular texts, but radiometric and paleographic dating places the texts in the collection in the first two centuries BCE and the first century CE. The Hellenistic period is defined as having begun with the death of Alexander in 323 BCE, so it is not surprising that there were Jewish religious scholars writing in Greek during this period.

In any event, none of the 2nd century manuscripts with the Jesus story was written in the Hebrew language.

You did not know that?
Yes, I know that. But I'm wondering what your point is. Greek was a lingua franca in the time and place in which Christianity emerged. In fact, during the 1st Century CE more Jews spoke Greek than Hebrew. What does the fact that the Jesus stories (please note the plurality of narratives) were written in Koine Greek have to do with whether or not there was an historical Jesus?

Then perhaps you could address my previous queries about the sources for you claims regarding Josephus, Tacitus and Suetonius?
 
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James is much better attested outside the bible than Jesus is, and that mention in Josephus is not the only place he is called "Brother Of The Lord".

I think your statement should be given the "Misrepresentation Award" for the year 2013.

If you had done even a most basic inquiry into the character called the Apostle James the Lord's brother you would have found out there was no such person identified in the NT outside of Galatians 1.18-19.

Essentially An Apostle James the Lord's brother is NOT corroborated in the NT.

You would have also found out that the character called the Apostle James the Lord's brother was NOT James in Josephus' Antiquities of the Jews 20.9.1.

James in AJ 20.9.1 was supposedly stoned to death about the time Albinus became procurator of Judea or around c 62 CE.

James the Lord's brother was STILL ALIVE up to at least c 67-68 CE--the 14th year of NERO when CLEMENT was about to be Bishop of Rome.

See the Recognitions.


Rufinus' Preface to the Recognitions
.... The epistle in which the same Clement, writing to James the Lord's brother, informs him of the death of Peter, and that he had left him his successor in his chair and teaching, and in which also the whole subject of church order is treated....


The supposed Apostle Peter died in the 14th year of NERO c 67-68 CE and James the Lord's brother was still ALIVE.

Examine Jerome's De Viris Illustribus.


Jerome's De Viris Illustribus 1
Simon Peter the son of John, from the village of Bethsaida in the province of Galilee, brother of Andrew the apostle, and himself chief of the apostles, after having been bishop of the church of Antioch and having preached to the Dispersion — the believers in circumcision, in Pontus, Galatia, Cappadocia, Asia and Bithynia— pushed on to Rome in the second year of Claudius to overthrow Simon Magus, and held the sacerdotal chair there for twenty-five years until the last, that is the fourteenth, year of Nero.

At his hands he received the crown of martyrdom
being nailed to the cross with his head towards the ground and his feet raised on high...


The Apostle James the Lord's brother in Galatians 1.19 was ALIVE c 67-68 CE.

The Apostle James the Lord's brother is NOT James in Antiquities 20.9.1 who was supposedly stoned to death around c 62 CE.

The Apostles James the Lord's brother in Galatians is NOT attested in or outside the Bible.
 
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I think your statement should be given the "Misrepresentation Award" for the year 2013.

If you had done even a most basic inquiry into the character called the Apostle James the Lord's brother you would have found out there was no such person identified in the NT outside of Galatians 1.18-19.

Essentially An Apostle James the Lord's brother is NOT corroborated in the NT.

You would have also found out that the character called the Apostle James the Lord's brother was NOT James in Josephus' Antiquities of the Jews 20.9.1.

James in AJ 20.9.1 was supposedly stoned to death about the time Albinus became procurator of Judea or around c 62 CE.

James the Lord's brother was STILL ALIVE up to at least c 67-68 CE--the 14th year of NERO when CLEMENT was about to be Bishop of Rome.

See the Recognitions.


Rufinus' Preface to the Recognitions


The supposed Apostle Peter died in the 14th year of NERO c 67-68 CE and James the Lord's brother was still ALIVE.

Examine Jerome's De Viris Illustribus.


Jerome's De Viris Illustribus 1


The Apostle James the Lord's brother in Galatians 1.19 was ALIVE c 67-68 CE.

The Apostle James the Lord's brother is NOT James in Antiquities 20.9.1 who was supposedly stoned to death around c 62 CE.

The Apostles James the Lord's brother in Galatians is NOT attested in or outside the Bible.

That has nothing to do with anything that I wrote.
 
Speaking for myself, yes. That is a very tendentious way of putting things. The expression "belief in Jesus" is loaded with religious baggage - and you know it. Stop addressing perfectly courteous and reasonable people in this foolish and irritating fashion! No. You're at it again. By any normal uses of the word sceptic, I am one, and always have been. Your counter posing "belief in Jesus" with "sceptic" in this discussion of whether there is a historical personality behind the Jesus stories is a transparent way of associating your opponents with Christian belief. It is unworthy of you, if you want to be taken seriously.

ETA Wiki has this to say about recent developments in Wells's thinking.



You are yet again personalising your replies in a very silly way. And I'm sure everyone here can see that (they certainly ought to be able to see it).

My question to GDon was perfectly normal and reasonable - I am asking if he has in fact tried to make a dispassionate objective reading of books by those authors ... or whether his information about Jesus, where afaik he does believe in the reality of Jesus, comes from reading authors like Ehrman and many others who are bible scholars and who write books saying that "evidence" such as Paul meets "James, the Lords Brother" is certain proof of Jesus (Ehrman's last book was entirely about his certainty from such ideas).

Tell me what you thought about the quality of writing, research, care, precision and referencing etc. in Ellegard’s book?
 
You are yet again personalising your replies in a very silly way. And I'm sure everyone here can see that (they certainly ought to be able to see it).

My question to GDon was perfectly normal and reasonable - I am asking if he has in fact tried to make a dispassionate objective reading of books by those authors ... or whether his information about Jesus, where afaik he does believe in the reality of Jesus, comes from reading authors like Ehrman and many others who are bible scholars and who write books saying that "evidence" such as Paul meets "James, the Lords Brother" is certain proof of Jesus (Ehrman's last book was entirely about his certainty from such ideas).
...

Other people can read this thread too Ian. Lying about your replies doesn't help your credibility.

They are neither reasonable nor polite.
 
That has nothing to do with anything that I wrote.

How could you have forgotten what you wrote? Examine your own post #2607 dated 31st December 2013

Brainache said:
James is much better attested outside the bible than Jesus is, and that mention in Josephus is not the only place he is called "Brother Of The Lord".

Your statement is utterly erroneous.

It is actually the complete opposite. James the Lord's brother is WITHOUT attestation in or outside the Bible.

Jesus Christ had NO brother who was an Apostle called James and that is MULTIPLE attested in the NT.


Galatians 1:19 KJV
But other of the APOSTLE saw I none, save James the Lord's brother.

Let us examine the list of Apostles in the Bible and we will not see any apostle called James the Lord's brother.


Matthew 10
2 Now the names of the twelve apostles are these; The first, Simon, who is called Peter, and Andrew his brother; James the son of Zebedee, and John his brother; 3 Philip, and Bartholomew; Thomas, and Matthew the publican; James the son of Alphaeus, and Lebbaeus, whose surname was Thaddaeus; 4 Simon the Canaanite, and Judas Iscariot, who also betrayed him..


There are ONLY TWO Apostles called James.

1.Apostle James the Son of Zebedee.

2. Apostle James the son of Alphaeus.

In Acts James the son of Zebedee the brother of John is executed by Herod.


Acts 2
Now about that time Herod the king stretched forth his hands to vex certain of the church. 2 And he killed James the brother of John with the sword.


There is only one remaining Apostle called James the son of Alphaeus.

Now, the mother of Apostle James the son of Alpheus is NOT the mother of Jesus.

Examine the fragment of Papias. There were FOUR women called Mary and the Apostle James was the son of Alphaeus and another Mary--not the mother of the Lord.

Papias' Fragments
(1.) Mary the mother of the Lord; (2.) Mary the wife of Cleophas or Alphæus, who was the mother of James the bishop and apostle, and of Simon and Thaddeus, and of one Joseph; (3.) Mary Salome, wife of Zebedee, mother of John the evangelist and James; (4.) Mary Magdalene. These four are found in the Gospel......


Again, it is shown that James the Lord's brother is NOT the actual brother of Jesus in the Bible and that outside the Bible James the Lord's brother is NOT James in Josephus' Antiquities of the Jews 20.9.1.

It is completely wrong that James the Lord's brother is much better attested outside the Bible than Jesus.

There is no Apostle James the Lord's brother in Josephus who died c 67-68 CE.
 
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... Jesus Christ had NO brother who was an Apostle called James and that is MULTIPLE attested in the NT.
Sorry, I've asked this before. Who is saying that the James who is "Brother of The Lord" was an Apostle?
 
How could you have forgotten what you wrote? Examine your own post #2607 dated 31st December 2013



Your statement is utterly erroneous.

It is actually the complete opposite. James the Lord's brother is WITHOUT attestation in or outside the Bible.

Jesus Christ had NO brother who was an Apostle called James and that is MULTIPLE attested in the NT.


Galatians 1:19 KJV

Let us examine the list of Apostles in the Bible and we will not see any apostle called James the Lord's brother.


Matthew 10


There are ONLY TWO Apostles called James.

1.Apostle James the Son of Zebedee.

2. Apostle James the son of Alphaeus.

In Acts James the son of Zebedee the brother of John is executed by Herod.


Acts 2


There is only one remaining Apostle called James the son of Alphaeus.

Now, the mother of Apostle James the son of Alpheus is NOT the mother of Jesus.

Examine the fragment of Papias. There were FOUR women called Mary and the Apostle James was the son of Alphaeus and another Mary--not the mother of the Lord.

Papias' Fragments


Again, it is shown that James the Lord's brother is NOT the actual brother of Jesus in the Bible and that outside the Bible James the Lord's brother is NOT James in Josephus' Antiquities of the Jews 20.9.1.

It is completely wrong that James the Lord's brother is much better attested outside the Bible than Jesus.

There is no Apostle James the Lord's brother in Josephus who died c 67-68 CE.

Sorry, I've asked this before. Who is saying that the James who is "Brother of The Lord" was an Apostle?

Odd, isn't it.

The main point of course is going completely ignored.

dejudge is actually denying the existence of Clement, Papias, Hegesippus and Eusebius all at once.

Amazing.
 
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