(snip)
You only think that because you have such a simplistic concept of history. You seem to think that history is some sort of perfect record, and that anything that ever happened is preserved for us. You seem to think that all we have to do to determine what happened in the distant past is to go look up the records, and if no record exists from that time period, then it cannot have actually happened. Of course, you only apply this reasoning to Christianity, otherwise you'd be dismissing a great many non-Christian writers as Medieval inventions.
From
Evidence for the historical existence of Jesus Christ:
"
What qualifies as good evidence?
In order of quality good evidence is:
1) Contemporary evidence: Evidence that dates to the time the person or event actually happened.
2) Derivative evidence: Evidence that is known to use contemporary record-evidence that has since been lost.
3) Comparative evidence: Evidence that gives details that can be checked against known factors of the time.
A good rule of thumb here is that history records the unusual, the special, and the important; and the amount history records is generally directly proportional to when these factors achieve a critical mass.
If a person is said to be important and popular during their lifetime then it is reasonable to expect contemporary evidence, or at the least derivative evidence, documenting this."
Take a good look at the Jesus story:
NO Contemporary evidence, NO Derivative evidence, and what little Comparative evidence there is does a major fail (a slaughter no one else records, an anachronistic and logicality insane census, illogical trials that no one even remarks about)
More over there is NO reference to any Gospel (not so much as a quote) until the 130s. Supposedly Mark was written c70 CE and yet NO one even mentions it or any other Gospel until c130?

How does
that work? How do you
not mention an account of the man whose words are the key to the salvation of your immortal soul for
nearly 70 years?!
Finally, why was the first attempt as making a Christian Bible (Marcion c140 CE ) so anti Jewish but
not contain John (which can be reasonably argued is so anti Jewish as to be practically antisemitic)?
If Marcion was holding that the god of the Jews (and of this world) was an evil incompetent demiurge (see 2 Corinthians 4:4 for just what this really means) then an altered version of John where Jesus' enemies are "the Jews" would have seemingly fit the bill...but he doesn't use it. Why?