TimCallahan
Philosopher
- Joined
- Mar 11, 2009
- Messages
- 6,293
. . . snip . . . Tim
No, he said he didn't get his gospel from other people, and apparently defines his gospel as what I quoted in the earlier post, Galatians 2: 15 ff. If not, then he hasn't defined gospel and so cannot be said to have said anything definite at all. And either way, he says it in the context of disclosing a two week confab with Cephas. If you want to define his words for him, for your own use, then peachy, but you can't attribute the resulting joint composition to him.
I think we'll have to leave this discussion here. To me, Paul seems to be saying his gospel comes entirely from his personal revelation. His succeeding battle with James over associating with Gentiles and over circumcision indicates that he had radical new ideas that set him at odds with those - including James - who wanted to keep the followers of Jesus as a Jewish group, only accepting Gentiles who first converted to Judaism.
BTW, if, after conversion, Paul went off to Arabia (probably Arabia Felix) for three years, presumably by himself, and after that only talked to Peter and James and only visited Jerusalem for two weeks, it doesn't sound like he placed a whole lot of importance, comparatively speaking, to James and company.
Supernatural interest in a future pregancy does not imply that the conception will occur without the lady having had sexual intercourse. I doubt the thought would occur except that Matthew misread Isaiah, about which "Luke" holds his silence. (I actually read it as Gabe telling Mary that God wouldn't mind, just this once, if she gave Joe a helping hand, so to speak, in stepping up to the plate. Then again, I have a dirty mind. Then again again, unwed Ruth did the same for Boaz, and according to Luke, they are among Jesus' ancestors on both sides.)
No, the text very plainly says that her conception will be supernatural. Concerning the hilited area, the only Davidic genealogy Luke gives is for Joseph.
Don't they all. Nevertheless, that's what in the text we are discussing. With or without the five hundred, I do think there is a plausibly original passage that says Paul isn't alone in seeing this ghost, and that he is the most recent one to do so among the apostolic class.
Yes, I agree that a number of people reported seeing the risen Christ. If such a story came out of India concerning a swami who had appeared to people after his death, Christians would dismiss it as superstition and hysteria. (In fact, numerous miracle stories do come out of India, all well attested to by many witnesses). Yet Christians want others to see multiple post-resurrection Jesus sightings as proof of their claims.
Sorry to hear about your misadventure with the JREF system. I notice that the inactivity time-out is very crisp, and often unrealistically short for a thoughtful response to be composed.
Well, everything seems to be working now.