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Bart Ehrman on the Historical Jesus

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I don't recall Paul referring to anyone but James as "the Lord's brother." He certainly never referred to Cephas (Peter) as "the Lord's brother."



No, I don't think he does refer to anyone else as "the Lords brother". In fact, afaik he never again referred to James as the lords brother either! He just calls him "James". And James himself in his own gospel, does not claim to be the brother of Jesus anyway.

But (again), those three words may in any case be a "correction" added by the later copyists who wrote the only surviving copies that we are relying on (we are not using anything actually ever written by Paul, so we don't really know what Paul ever wrote about it).
 
Authors like Josephus were not even born at the time of Jesus, so any mention they might have made of Jesus can only be hearsay obtained from what had once been said by earlier generations of Christians themselves (there are no other earlier sources except the biblical writing itself).

Typical dodge, of course. James WAS a contemporary of Josephus. So however suspect you may feel the James reference to be, your invoking the matter of "not even born" (a typical incantation of the mythers) as a reason to doubt the reference is WHOLLY BOGUS. Bring up something else that works with the facts, not a blatant lie about Josephus's birth. If you want to talk about Josephus' birth, then bring it up with respect to Jesus, NOT James. If you want to adduce something legit that questions the James reference, then bring up something OTHER than a factoid that is ONLY relevant to Jesus and not James.

Now, let's see in how few pages you do exactly the same thing all over again because that's the way you're programmed.

Stone
 
No, I don't think he does refer to anyone else as "the Lords brother". In fact, afaik he never again referred to James as the lords brother either! He just calls him "James". And James himself in his own gospel, does not claim to be the brother of Jesus anyway.

But (again), those three words may in any case be a "correction" added by the later copyists who wrote the only surviving copies that we are relying on (we are not using anything actually ever written by Paul, so we don't really know what Paul ever wrote about it).

We don't have ONE passage to contend with. We have TWO, including the one already referenced previously where Cephas is explicitly set aside from the brothers. Let's see you try and come up with something parsimonious that accounts for both the "three words" in Galatians and the reference to brothers that excludes Cephas from being a brother.

And no, I won't be holding my breath. After all, parsimonious is what those scienti -- excuse me, 'dem historians do. And you can't spoil your brand with that now, can you?

Stone
 
I'm just musing aloud, as I haven't made up my mind yet on those Pauline references to the Lord's brother.

What I can see is that Paul's references to James seem to describe a very different person from the one described in the Synoptics as Jesus' brother.

Could the James who wanted to lock up his brother as a nutter be the head of the Jerusalem church so soon afterwards?

I'm not saying it's impossible, of course, but it seems odd to me there'd have been no mention of James' conversion and rise in power.

And then there's Acts. Is there any mention of James, the brother of Jesus there? Is James the JustWP the brother of Jesus? Wiki identifies him as the James mentioned by Paul.

Is James the brother of John, killed by orders of Herod, also the brother of the Lord?

Is the James named by Jesus his successor in the Gospel of Thomas his brother?

I'm confused by the references and apparent contradictions surrounding Paul's references to James.

As a poster in the RatSkept monster thread asked:
Well, why does Paul go up to Jerusalem specifically to see "Peter" when it is obvious that "James" is the head of the church in Jerusalem? Why didn't Paul go up to Jerusalem specifically to see "James, the Lord's brother" the head of the church? ...
http://www.rationalskepticism.org/christianity/historical-jesus-t219-23000.html#p1255845

In any case, I hope the better informed posters here can give me a hand figuring out which James Paul says he met in Jerusalem.
 
Authors like Josephus were not even born at the time of Jesus, so any mention they might have made of Jesus can only be hearsay obtained from what had once been said by earlier generations of Christians themselves (there are no other earlier sources except the biblical writing itself).

Josephius lived from ca. CE 37 to ca. CE 100. James is supposed to have died either in CE 62 or 69. So, he was a contemporary of Josephus. It's also reasonable that he might have second hand knowledge of people and events happening a bit before he was born. If I speak to a veteran of World War II, must I really corroborate what he tells me of his experience with newsreel footage etc. before I can accept his reasonable story? Now, if he tells me he got to the Normandy invasion by walking on water across the English channel, that's another story. So, it's not that unreasonable for Josephus to refer to a man who was "spoken of" as the Christ. He could easily have picked up this information from many sources.

The one thing that damages the credibility of the "who was called Christ" clause for me is that Josephus says nothing else about Jesus, nothing like the paragraph on Theudas, for example.

Also of course, we do not actually know what, if anything, later authors such as Josephus ever wrote about James or Jesus, because all we have under the name of those authors are copies written by Christians themselves around 1000 years later.

True enough. However, by the same token we can't know from such copies if anything he said was true. If we are going to accept the general veracity of his manuscript, then we need specific reasons for rejecting any particular. These abound in the TF, as well as in Josephus' mention of the iron gate Alexander the Great built in a pass in the Caucasus mountains or his story that Moses, while prince of Egypt, conquered Ethiopia and married an Ethiopian princess named Tharbis. Beyond reasonably recent events, going back to the time of the Maccabean kings, he's reasonably reliable. For ancient history, he uses hear-say. I see the "who was called Christ" clause as fairly reasonable, but I also accept that it might have been an innocent add-on by a later scribe who "knew" it referred to the Christian Jesus.

That's not credible or reliable evidence that James was the actual brother of Jesus. That’s only evidence that later Christians were repeating what had been attributed to Paul as early as circa. 55AD.

I don't think there's any great doubt that Paul wrote Galatians. One thing in the letter that points to it being valid is its unvarnished presentation of a nascent religion already riven by factions, as opposed to the picture painted in the Book of Acts.
 
I've read a number of Ehrman's books, and it's my impression that he thinks all the furor must have been over somebody...
His view of the historical Jesus is pretty limited; an Apocalyptic preacher who made the mistake of announcing his notions of becoming "king of the Jews" in Jerusalem itself. Not something that played well with the Roman authorities...

Of course we spend a lot of time in the What counts as a historical Jesus? thread that kicked around just how close would said Apocalyptic preacher have to be to meet the criteria of "historical Jesus".

More over with claims that King Arthur and Robin Hood are "historical" with candidates as much as 200 years before the setting of the 'traditional stories' said Apocalyptic preacher could have actually lived much earlier and may been executed by some other group...there are those stories Jesus lived in the Alexander Jannaeus going back, according to Richard Price, to a "second-century Jewish-Christian gospel".

So far all we know we may be looking in the wrong time for Jesus.
 
So it is impossible to propose a historical existence for any person whose biography has been elaborated to contain mythological elements? Some plausible things are stated about Jesus, as well as some fantastic things. Can some criteria be devised to separate legend from reality?

The people who have a real problem are the "strong" mythicists who state that Jesus was never believed by Paul and others to have existed as a human being, and that he was thought of as a purely spiritual entity residing in a non-physical dimension.

While I agree with the "strong" mythicists (Joseph Wheless being a sort of poster child) being a problem, Remsburg pointed out over 100 years ago:

"A Historical myth according to Strauss, and to some extent I follow his language, is a real event colored by the light of antiquity, which confounded the human and divine, the natural and the supernatural. (...)

A Philosophical myth is an idea clothed in the caress of historical narrative. When a mere idea is personified and presented in the form of a man or a god it is called a pure myth. (...)

A Poetical myth is a blending of the historical and philosophical, embellished by the creations of the imagination. The poems of Homer and Hesiod, which were the religious text books of the ancient Greeks, and the poetical writings of the Bible, which helped to form and foster the Semitic faiths of Judaism, Christianity, and Mohammedanism, belong to this class.

It is often difficult, if not impossible, to distinguish a historical from a philosophical myth. Hence the non-agreement of Freethinkers in regard to the nature of the Christ myth. Is Christ a historical or a philosophical myth? Does an analysis of his alleged history disclose the deification of a man, or merely the personification of an idea?"


Christoper Columbus sailing West to prove the world was around is a poetical myth used to illustrate the Renaissance explorer driving away "Medieval Ignorance".

As the 1994 BBC/A&E "Myth of the Spanish Inquisition" showed, the Spanish Inquisition that comes to most people's mind is nearly entirely a fictional creation of her enemies with next to no connection to the real thing other then name. Many torture devices supposedly used by the Inquisition (like the Iron Maiden and Choke Pear) in fact weren't and came into existence well after the Inquisition was in decline.

Terry Jones in the King episode of Medieval Lives just how mythical our views of Richard I, II, and III are.


In the case of Jesus so little has survived that answer of just where Jesus is on the Historical and Philosophical myth spectrum can't be answered.

The Gospels tell us that Jesus was widely known but no truly contemporary person mentions him or any of the events associated with him or his ministry.

The Gospels have Pontius Pilate behaving in a manner at odds with what others tell us and Herod Agrippa doesn't mention it in his letter to Philo who is on his way to Caligula to discourage some the ideas Caligula has regarding Jerusalem. If Pilate had tried to placate a Jewish mob by offering to free the killer of Roman citizens, Agrippa could have certainly wrote about it so Philo would relay it and encourage Caligula to put him (Agrippa) in charge of the region...but he doesn't.

The problem with Jesus' is not the mythological elements but every time we come to something that can be checked (be it slaughter of innocents, census, or the proceedings of the trial) there is nothing to support it or it contradicts with what is known.
 
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I'm just musing aloud, as I haven't made up my mind yet on those Pauline references to the Lord's brother.

What I can see is that Paul's references to James seem to describe a very different person from the one described in the Synoptics as Jesus' brother.

Could the James who wanted to lock up his brother as a nutter be the head of the Jerusalem church so soon afterwards?

A better question might be: Could the James who headed the Church have tried to lock up his brother for being a nutter?

I'm not saying it's impossible, of course, but it seems odd to me there'd have been no mention of James' conversion and rise in power.

And then there's Acts. Is there any mention of James, the brother of Jesus there? Is James the JustWP the brother of Jesus? Wiki identifies him as the James mentioned by Paul.

There does seem to be a consensus on this.

Is James the brother of John, killed by orders of Herod, also the brother of the Lord?

If Eisenman is right, "James the brother of John" is actually Theudas. Acts mixes up and changes a lot of stuff that is in other sources. Like the election of James, which it replaces with an election to replace Judas. This makes no sense.

Is the James named by Jesus his successor in the Gospel of Thomas his brother?

Yes.

I'm confused by the references and apparent contradictions surrounding Paul's references to James.

As a poster in the RatSkept monster thread asked:

http://www.rationalskepticism.org/christianity/historical-jesus-t219-23000.html#p1255845

In any case, I hope the better informed posters here can give me a hand figuring out which James Paul says he met in Jerusalem.

The only James Paul mentions at any stage is the "Lord's Brother". Other sources say that this James was "Bishop" of Jerusalem. Other Jameses are just a smokescreen to hide the fact that Jesus' Brothers were enemies of Rome.
 
While I'm here I just thought I'd mention something about Josephus: He called all of these Messianic pretenders "Impostors" and "Deceivers" accusing them of leading people astray with their new Messiah BS.(It didn't stop him from saving his own neck by applying this BS to Vespasian tho'.) My point here is that if there ever was a TF original to Josephus, it probably wouldn't have been flattering to Jesus.

Those early Church Fathers who were so offended by a passage in Josephus blaming the fall of Jerusalem on popular revolt after the killing of James (they thought it should have been because of Jesus), might very well have altered the text, because modern copies don't contain that passage.
 
pakeha

There are enough Jameses to go around. Looking through your list, and as to your other site's

... it is obvious that "James" is the head of the church in Jerusalem?
It's not at all obvious from Paul that James is the head of the church in Jerusalem. James, John and Cephas are jointly "reputed to be pillars." (Galatians 2:9) That's not even a strong assertion of a troika, much less "obvious" one-man rule.

The main argument for special authority is that the men who come to Antioch are "from" James. But if we look at the three "snapshots" of the situation in Jeursalem in Galatians (Paul's early visit, his later visit, and later still, while Paul and Cephas are in Antioch), John, the third "reputed pillar," is mentioned in only one of the three. It could be that John isn't a regular resident of Jerusalem, or otherwise happens not to be in Jerusalem at the time Cephas is in Antioch.

So, doing the math, if there are three reputed pillars, and at a particular moment, one of them is absent from Jerusalem, one of them is unaccounted for, and one of them is present in Jerusalem, then who is in charge in Jerusalem, at that moment? Clearly, the answer provides no reason to think that when both Cephas and James are in Jerusalem, or when all three are in Jerusalem, that any of the them enjoys any authority over the others in the management of the Jerusalem church.


Ian

Sylvia Brown?? Anything she has ever said or done is 2000 years late I’m afraid.
Fear not. In living sceptical company, the availability of natural sources for information always suffices to defeat the hypothesis of a supernatural source. That's no less true when, as is the case with Paul, the informant doesn't cite any supernatural source. Funny that it is a skeptic who puts those words in the informant's mouth. That's poor investigative form, but you already know that.

The remaining matters have been discussed, and your questions to me have been asked and answered.
 
...The problem with Jesus' is not the mythological elements but every time we come to something that can be checked (be it slaughter of innocents, census, or the proceedings of the trial) there is nothing to support it or it contradicts with what is known.

I've seen it argued that those elements are later add-ons by the gospel writers to the tale of a person whose existence we can deduce from a core of sayings/teachings.



Brainache said:
I'm just musing aloud, as I haven't made up my mind yet on those Pauline references to the Lord's brother.

What I can see is that Paul's references to James seem to describe a very different person from the one described in the Synoptics as Jesus' brother.

Could the James who wanted to lock up his brother as a nutter be the head of the Jerusalem church so soon afterwards?

A better question might be: Could the James who headed the Church have tried to lock up his brother for being a nutter?
Possibly a better question, brainache, indeed.
But unfortunately it doesn't get me much forwarder to understanding who Paul is talking about.
Are you saying James the Just=Brother of the Lord?


...
And then there's Acts. Is there any mention of James, the brother of Jesus there? Is James the JustWP the brother of Jesus? Wiki identifies him as the James mentioned by Paul.

There does seem to be a consensus on this.
Then, James the Just=Jesus' brother=Brother of the Lord?

Is James the brother of John, killed by orders of Herod, also the brother of the Lord?

If Eisenman is right, "James the brother of John" is actually Theudas. Acts mixes up and changes a lot of stuff that is in other sources. Like the election of James, which it replaces with an election to replace Judas. This makes no sense.

Thanks for your take on that.
James, killed on Herod's orders, is NOT the brother of the Lord mentioned by Paul.
But he is the brother of John. Or a John, anyway.

Is the James named by Jesus his successor in the Gospel of Thomas his brother?

Yes.

So I can take it James the Just= Jesus' brother?

...
In any case, I hope the better informed posters here can give me a hand figuring out which James Paul says he met in Jerusalem.

The only James Paul mentions at any stage is the "Lord's Brother". Other sources say that this James was "Bishop" of Jerusalem. Other Jameses are just a smokescreen to hide the fact that Jesus' Brothers were enemies of Rome.

Ah, this would be Eisenman's take on the matter?

pakeha
...It's not at all obvious from Paul that James is the head of the church in Jerusalem. James, John and Cephas are jointly "reputed to be pillars." (Galatians 2:9) That's not even a strong assertion of a troika, much less "obvious" one-man rule.

The main argument for special authority is that the men who come to Antioch are "from" James. But if we look at the three "snapshots" of the situation in Jeursalem in Galatians (Paul's early visit, his later visit, and later still, while Paul and Cephas are in Antioch), John, the third "reputed pillar," is mentioned in only one of the three. It could be that John isn't a regular resident of Jerusalem, or otherwise happens not to be in Jerusalem at the time Cephas is in Antioch.

So, doing the math, if there are three reputed pillars, and at a particular moment, one of them is absent from Jerusalem, one of them is unaccounted for, and one of them is present in Jerusalem, then who is in charge in Jerusalem, at that moment? Clearly, the answer provides no reason to think that when both Cephas and James are in Jerusalem, or when all three are in Jerusalem, that any of the them enjoys any authority over the others in the management of the Jerusalem church. ...

Thanks your take on that, eight bits.
I see it's confusing the issue to take the Pauline references in any relation to the Synoptics and Acts.


Still, I was starting to imagine I had something of an idea about the Jameses and you had to show me that at the end of the day I'm even less certain about the identity of Paul's brother of the Lord than I was before asking here.
Off to read more.
 
...



Possibly a better question, brainache, indeed.
But unfortunately it doesn't get me much forwarder to understanding who Paul is talking about.
Are you saying James the Just=Brother of the Lord?



Then, James the Just=Jesus' brother=Brother of the Lord?



Thanks for your take on that.
James, killed on Herod's orders, is NOT the brother of the Lord mentioned by Paul.
But he is the brother of John. Or a John, anyway.



So I can take it James the Just= Jesus' brother?



Ah, this would be Eisenman's take on the matter?



...

Yes. I'm still reading part two of "James The Brother Of Jesus And The Dead Sea Scrolls", it is very convincing. Most of what I post in these threads is my summary of Eisenman's points. He obviously does a much better job of explaining these things than I can.
 
That's interesting.
Does Eisenman deduce a link between Paul and the communities of the DDS?
Or that James, the Brother of the Lord was not only a pillar of the church in Jerusalem but also an enemy of Rome?
 
Authors like Josephus were not even born at the time of Jesus, so any mention they might have made of Jesus can only be hearsay obtained from what had once been said by earlier generations of Christians themselves (there are no other earlier sources except the biblical writing itself)...


Josephius lived from ca. CE 37 to ca. CE 100. James is supposed to have died either in CE 62 or 69. So, he was a contemporary of Josephus. It's also reasonable that he might have second hand knowledge of people and events happening a bit before he was born. If I speak to a veteran of World War II, must I really corroborate what he tells me of his experience with newsreel footage etc. before I can accept his reasonable story? Now, if he tells me he got to the Normandy invasion by walking on water across the English channel, that's another story. So, it's not that unreasonable for Josephus to refer to a man who was "spoken of" as the Christ. He could easily have picked up this information from many sources.

The one thing that damages the credibility of the "who was called Christ" clause for me is that Josephus says nothing else about Jesus, nothing like the paragraph on Theudas, for example. ..



Sure, re. the dates given for the life of Josephus vs. the lifetime of James. I was not arguing about that. Though, when we quote any of these dates it would not surprise me if many of the dates were in fact way out.

The above (from me) was just a completely general comment to say that the writing of Josephus is really no use as a reliable source for anything about Jesus, because firstly - Josephus was not even supposed to be born until after Jesus was thought to have died, in which case it would be physically impossible for Josephus to personally know anything about Jesus, and that includes any possibility of Josephus knowing that Jesus had ever confirmed what anyone might later claim about being his actual brother.

We could speculate that Josephus might have personally met James, and that James himself had told Josephus that he was the brother of Jesus. But that seems highly unlikely, and afaik there is certainly no evidence that Josephus ever met James. Also, claims of that sort would not necessarily be true anyway - lots of people probably claimed to know Jesus or to be his brother etc.

Similarly, we could speculate that Josephus might have once met Paul, and that Paul could have told Josephus that James was the brother of Jesus. But again, that seems highly unlikely, and afaik there is no evidence for that at all. And if it comes to that, even Paul might not really have known who had ever met Jesus or who if anyone was really his family brother.

Far more likely is that by the time Josephus was writing circa.95AD, Christians of the time had got the idea of James as the Lords brother from the earlier writing of Galatians circa.55AD. So that by c.95AD Josephus was merely writing what was commonly said as hearsay by Christians at that time.

Or perhaps even more likely - by the time Christian copyists were producing the first of our existing copies of Josephus around 11th cent. AD, those copyists, ie any of the copyists since the date of Papyrus P46 c.200AD, were relying on what had by then appeared in the P46 copy with the words “the Lords brother”.



Also of course, we do not actually know what, if anything, later authors such as Josephus ever wrote about James or Jesus, because all we have under the name of those authors are copies written by Christians themselves around 1000 years later..



True enough. However, by the same token we can't know from such copies if anything he said was true. If we are going to accept the general veracity of his manuscript, then we need specific reasons for rejecting any particular. These abound in the TF, as well as in Josephus' mention of the iron gate Alexander the Great built in a pass in the Caucasus mountains or his story that Moses, while prince of Egypt, conquered Ethiopia and married an Ethiopian princess named Tharbis. Beyond reasonably recent events, going back to the time of the Maccabean kings, he's reasonably reliable. For ancient history, he uses hear-say. I see the "who was called Christ" clause as fairly reasonable, but I also accept that it might have been an innocent add-on by a later scribe who "knew" it referred to the Christian Jesus. ..


Well just as a brief comment on the above - afaik, Josephus writes a great deal about all manner of people and events, but he says very little about Jesus. So it’s not as if later Christian copyists needed to change huge tracts of text about Jesus. All the copyists needed to do was to add a few small explanations about what they later believed had once happened to Jesus and James. And it seems they had 1000 years or more in which to do that.


That's not credible or reliable evidence that James was the actual brother of Jesus. That’s only evidence that later Christians were repeating what had been attributed to Paul as early as circa. 55AD.


I don't think there's any great doubt that Paul wrote Galatians. One thing in the letter that points to it being valid is its unvarnished presentation of a nascent religion already riven by factions, as opposed to the picture painted in the Book of Acts.


One individual author “Paul” may have been responsible for 7 of the 13 Pauline letters, but that does not mean that same single author wrote the three words “the Lords brother” which apparently appears in the copy P46 dating from around 200AD. By that date, and in what is definitely a later copy (not anything original to “Paul”), various “corrections” may have been added by any number of copyists who thought they were adding important extra clarifications.

But that’s apart from the fact that the reference may never have been intended to mean a family blood brother anyway, but just a brother in faith. As I said earlier - Paul apparently never mentions that ever again, and James himself in his own gospel apparently makes no such claim at all.


I’m not saying it couldn’t happen. But, just that one single insertion of three somewhat ambiguous words, appearing in a Christian copy about 150 years or more later, and where Paul never says any more about that, and where James himself never mentions it, cannot be taken as reliable evidence that this “James” or anyone else was actually the family brother of Jesus Christ. And especially not if we are relying on the writing of ancient religious fanatics who were constantly claiming miracles and the supernatural etc, in an age of profound ignorance and lack of any critical checking and corroboration of the kind that any of us would do for such statements today.
 
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Well just as a brief comment on the above - afaik, Josephus writes a great deal about all manner of people and events, but he says very little about Jesus. So it’s not as if later Christian copyists needed to change huge tracts of text about Jesus. All the copyists needed to do was to add a few small explanations about what they later believed had once happened to Jesus and James. And it seems they had 1000 years or more in which to do that.

More over compare what Josephus says about Jesus to
Simon of Peraea (d 4 BCE),
Athronges (c 3 CE),
Judas of Galilee (6 CE),
Theudas the magician (between 44 and 46 CE),
Egyptian Jew Messiah (between 52 and 58 CE),
Menahem ben Judah (sometime between 66-73 CE),
or John of Giscala (d c70 CE)

In many of these cases Josephus goes into far greater detail then with Jesus...but why is this so?

If Mark came out in c70 CE then Josephus could have used it to flesh out what Jesus said and did. But what we do get is laughable vague...almost on par with what we have with regards to Paul.
 
Sylvia Brown?? Anything she has ever said or done is 2000 years late I’m afraid.

You say Jesus would have learned things about Jesus from talking to "Cephas during a two-week confab (and some contact with our James) early in his career, a further meeting years later with Peter, James and John (James' full brother, perhaps) and friction with a steady stream of fellow Jesus preachers over the years." ? .... OK, so what does Paul tell us that he learnt from them about the earthly life of Jesus?


What does Paul say that he was told about Jesus by any of those named people?

Fear not. In living sceptical company, the availability of natural sources for information always suffices to defeat the hypothesis of a supernatural source. That's no less true when, as is the case with Paul, the informant doesn't cite any supernatural source. Funny that it is a skeptic who puts those words in the informant's mouth. That's poor investigative form, but you already know that.

.



Someone here said that Paul claimed a supernatural source for him writing that James was the “the lords brother”? Who said that Paul got that info by supernatural means?

Did you think I said that?

Where do you think I said any such thing?
 
Ian

I don't know what you think, but, since you bring it up, what are your thoughts on Paul calling James a brother of the Lord?

In your view, did Paul write that? If so, then what do you think Paul meant by it? If you think Paul meant to assert some fact he believed about James, then what do you think Paul's information source was?

There's no point in my speculating when you can just tell us what you think.
 
Just for the amusement value on a lazy Saturday afternoon, I'll throw in an idea I just read on THAT thread speculating that Erhman had an a deviously Jesuitical (pace, mr Erhman) motive for writing DJE?

It's been suggested that perhaps Ehrman wrote his book DJE? as a means to kick start a serious debate about the possible historical non-existence of Jesus by exposing the paucity of evidence and the weakness of the 'consensus' argument.

Having spent some time with this book I'm not finding anything which refutes that thesis.

He's already thrown a few old favorites of the apologists under the bus: Pliny, Suetonius, Tacitus, Josephus, and the Talmud.

Ehrman's argument for Jesus now rests on sola scriptura. :priest:

This will play well among the bible believers but will make it pretty difficult for any secular minded people to take seriously.

http://www.rationalskepticism.org/christianity/historical-jesus-t219-33940.html#p1817663
 
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More over compare what Josephus says about Jesus to
Simon of Peraea (d 4 BCE),
Athronges (c 3 CE),
Judas of Galilee (6 CE),
Theudas the magician (between 44 and 46 CE),
Egyptian Jew Messiah (between 52 and 58 CE),
Menahem ben Judah (sometime between 66-73 CE),
or John of Giscala (d c70 CE)

In many of these cases Josephus goes into far greater detail then with Jesus...but why is this so?

If Mark came out in c70 CE then Josephus could have used it to flesh out what Jesus said and did. But what we do get is laughable vague...almost on par with what we have with regards to Paul.

Agreed. This is one problem about his reference to James as the brother of Jesus, "who was called [or "spoken of as" Gr. legomenou] Christ." Since Josephus goes into detail about Theudas, a relatively minor character, we would expect an earlier reference to Jesus, even though it might only be a few sentences, to explain the allusion to "Jesus who was called Christ."
 
Agreed. This is one problem about his reference to James as the brother of Jesus, "who was called [or "spoken of as" Gr. legomenou] Christ." Since Josephus goes into detail about Theudas, a relatively minor character, we would expect an earlier reference to Jesus, even though it might only be a few sentences, to explain the allusion to "Jesus who was called Christ."

It is indeed only a few sentences, and by suggesting there's no such passage, as some kind of a fact(!), you're turning a fringe opinion into a fact. Shameless. Fact: There is a passage of a few sentences prior to the reference to James, and it's in Chapter 18. What you've done without realizing it is leave the implication that there was originally such a passage in Chapter 18 after all, except that the original was corrupted and "sanitized". Guess what? That's the same guess we find in a whopping majority of today's professional secular scholars -- Duh.

Stone
 
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