godless dave
Great Dalmuti
- Joined
- Jul 25, 2007
- Messages
- 8,266
Someone claimed good art doesn't exist. That's absurd. Do you agree with that claim?
Nobody claimed that. You are trying to argue by misrepresenting what other people say.
Someone claimed good art doesn't exist. That's absurd. Do you agree with that claim?
No, I'm really saying that normative questions have no meaning.
If you can explicitly state your personal opinions and heuristics, that works too. But if you don't know what they are, then asking whether something is "wrong" isn't meaningful - you don't know what the question means, and you can't understand the answer.
No, I'm really saying that normative questions have no meaning.
If you can explicitly state your personal opinions and heuristics, that works too. But if you don't know what they are, then asking whether something is "wrong" isn't meaningful - you don't know what the question means, and you can't understand the answer.
Then we're using a different meaning for "meaning". What do you mean, exactly?
Ah, ok. But then you seem to imply that normative questions can be meaningful if we know what we're talking about. For example, if through context we know the underlying definition. That can happen in serious moral discussions.
You seem to use a more restrictive meaning for "meaning" than the one I and others use. A definition would help clarify your position.
Define "meaningful".
An internally consistent finite set of symbolic references.
You can think of a normative statement as an equation X + Y = Z.Well, I just asked that in the previous page.
Anyway, I think Pixy Misa is explicitly denying that normative judgements have any meaning at all, and at best they are merely judgements that have not had the detail filled in yet.
When we talk about the real numbers, for example, which are not just infinite but uncountably so, we use a single symbolic reference to do so: Real numbers.But Pixy, how does that work for things like numbers which are infinite sets?
I was searching for a better way to describe that requirement, but it was late at night here and I was tired. Put very simply, you can construct meaningful sentences about infinities, but you cannot construct a meaningful sentence that is infinite itself.And why is "finite" a necessary criteria anyway? Surely this seems to be an arbitrary ruling you are making here.
You can think of a normative statement as an equation X + Y = Z.
Should we do X? can be translated as Another way Given situation Y, is action X an efficient method of achieving outcome Z?
The problem is, X is stated specifically, Y is at least implied, but Z is undefined. When you define Z, it stops being a normative question (as my translation, for example).
And if Z is not defined, how can we assert that the question is meaningful?
Another way to state my position would be to say that normative questions are unspecific.
One point I made a few times earlier is that the definitions don't have to be objective, just specific. If you lay out all your objective requirements for the outcome with sufficient specificity, a normative question can be objectively answered to your subjective goals.
When we talk about the real numbers, for example, which are not just infinite but uncountably so, we use a single symbolic reference to do so: Real numbers.
I was searching for a better way to describe that requirement, but it was late at night here and I was tired. Put very simply, you can construct meaningful sentences about infinities, but you cannot construct a meaningful sentence that is infinite itself.
No.You have to learn to differentiate between I, you, he/she, we, you and them otherwise you take to much for granted.
Not sure how that "Another way" got in there, and too late to edit now.Should we do X? can be translated asAnother wayGiven situation Y, is action X an efficient method of achieving outcome Z?
You can think of a normative statement as an equation X + Y = Z.
Should we do X? can be translated as Another way Given situation Y, is action X an efficient method of achieving outcome Z?
The problem is, X is stated specifically, Y is at least implied, but Z is undefined. When you define Z, it stops being a normative question (as my translation, for example).
And if Z is not defined, how can we assert that the question is meaningful?
Another way to state my position would be to say that normative questions are unspecific.
One point I made a few times earlier is that the definitions don't have to be objective, just specific. If you lay out all your objective requirements for the outcome with sufficient specificity, a normative question can be objectively answered to your subjective goals.
I was searching for a better way to describe that requirement, but it was late at night here and I was tired. Put very simply, you can construct meaningful sentences about infinities, but you cannot construct a meaningful sentence that is infinite itself.
Well, I just asked that in the previous page.
I think it would be less confusing if PixyMisa focused on lack of specificity instead of lack of meaning. Does "government" have any meaning in a given statement in which no particular government is made explicit? Of course, it surely conveys information in a similar way "good" conveys information. Is the statement specific enough, in itself, to be amenable to scientific inquiry? No, because it doesn't contain the specific information about which government we're talking about. The fact that some don't define their terms when they talk about morality doesn't mean that it can't be done. That's why I'm still stratching my head over PixyMixa's definition of "meaning" and his use of it.Anyway, I think Pixy Misa is explicitly denying that normative judgements have any meaning at all, and at best they are merely judgements that have not had the detail filled in yet.
Same thing with "God". Talking about "God" is fine, but without a clear definition of the word, no useful or meaningful talking is going to happen.Oops. Sorry. I read that, but I forgot about it while trying to figure out the consistency of PixyMisa's meaning for "meaning".
I think it would be less confusing if PixyMisa focused on lack of specificity instead of lack of meaning. Does "government" have any meaning in a given statement in which no particular government is made explicit? Of course, it surely conveys information in a similar way "good" conveys information. Is the statement specific enough, in itself, to be amenable to scientific inquiry? No, because it doesn't contain the specific information about which government we're talking about. The fact that some don't define their terms when they talk about morality doesn't mean that it can't be done. That's why I'm still stratching my head over PixyMixa's definition of "meaning" and his use of it.
Same thing with "God". Talking about "God" is fine, but without a clear definition of the word, no useful or meaningful talking is going to happen.
I disagree. I think that the term "god" is nearly always assumed and that people think they're talking about the same thing. But as I said, talk is fine, I don't believe it'd be meaningful talk without some explicit definitions. I do not apply this criteria to everything; that may mean I'm being hypocritical, but I don't honestly know.I don't think that is true. Definitions of words are notoriously nebulous in most cases I would think. Besides, we do not usually insist that people always define their terms at all times:
"Let's play a game!"
"Define 'game'!"
"Err..."
"Your talk is meaningless!"
The problem with God is not usually a lack of definitions - there are thousands of those - but the fact that the concepts have been refuted either philosophically, on the basis that these concepts are incoherent, or empirically on the basis that claims made for God have been shown to have better explanations.
I disagree. I think that the term "god" is nearly always assumed and that people think they're talking about the same thing.
But as I said, talk is fine, I don't believe it'd be meaningful talk without some explicit definitions. I do not apply this criteria to everything; that may mean I'm being hypocritical, but I don't honestly know.
At all would be a start.I don't know if that follows. How rigorously do concepts have to be defined before they can serve as meaningful concepts?
We refined those definitions using the scientific method. But the definitions were always in existence, and objective, if vague.I would argue that they need not always be - we managed to muddle along using words like "planet" and we do so with the word "gene" without needing the words to be scrupulously defined.
Yes. But it's not very good at it.In fact, part of the job of philosophy is to try to come up with better, sharper concepts that to some extent tie in with our intuitive concepts such as those about "morality" and "justice" which we can talk about quite meaningfully.
That's a separate question. What is your goal for that goal?But surely that just transfers the problem. Suppose I said that I have a goal. Why favour that goal over something else?
If you don't know what you mean, you can't define it. So don't use words you don't mean.This it seems is a perennial difficulty in both science and philosophy, that essentially we often end up having to rely on common sense assumptions and values rather than rigorous definitions, as the latter are ultimately impossible.
And?Now, I was wondering if there is some body of literature that this definition is based on, but you are giving me the awful feeling that you invented it last night.
Name one.I just get the impression you are smuggling in a lot of assumptions here about what is meaningful.