Someone else's religious belief is never unacceptable to me, unless it causes harm to others. Their belief is none of my business.
Yes, but that's not what I said.
No, it's back in the set of nested quotes. I said it.
I disagree with you on this. I think we'll have to leave it there.
Your choice.
Yes, since we aren't going to change each other's mind.
Once you introduce evidence for the belief, it ceases to be an opinion and becomes a statement or informed judgment.
Again, you're using a definition of opinion which suits your puposes. Experts have opinions, too. Laypeople have opinions. Ignoramuses have opinions. About the same thing.
I think
the definitions of opinion in my previous post show that my use is legit. And all those opinions in your examples have the same weight. If the expert is pronouncing as an expert on the subject at hand, it's not an opinion, it's a statement of positive knowledge. If it's an opinion on a subject outside his field, the expert's opinion has the same worth as the ignoramus's and the lay-person's opinions.
To me, opinions are beliefs without evidence or reason
Which would mean the word has no use. There are other words which convey this.
I disagree. See
the definitions of opinion in my previous post. Also, what "other words that convey this" did you mean?
here are the examples I gave before: blue is nicer than orange or I like Clapton better than Hendrix.
But that's a matter of taste. It is not a descriptive statement but a qualitative one. They are also not beliefs.
I disagree. Those are opinions, unsubstantiated, subjective beliefs.
But they were equal in the sense that each represented the knowledge of the time.
Irrelevant. One turned out to be true. They were not equal. You're just playing semantics, now.
One theory replaced the other because new evidence indicated that it was more valid or probable. That doesn't mean that the old theory was just opinion. It was knowledge based on the methods of gathering evidence available at the time and on the evidence so gathered. So, no, I'm not "just playing semantics." And in the future when you quote me, please indicate that you have cut part of what I said. The rest of that answer was:
They weren't opinions, they were based on evidence. That the evidence later proved false doesn't change that it was accepted as valid at the time, nor does it change that there were beliefs based on that evidence; i.e., knowledge.
So your argument is:
Premise: There is no evidence for the existence of god.
Conclusion: God doesn't exist.
Not too long ago, a similar argument would have been:
Premise: There is no evidence that bacteria cause disease.
Conclusion: Bacteria don't cause disease.
Wrong and wrong.
This is not wrong. I was replying to this post from
tsig:
No, that is an opinion. I don't consider that to be an "informed judgement" because there are no facts or evidence to inform your belief that there is no god. I also agree that there is no evidence to inform my belief that there is a God, which makes that my opinion/belief.
:
It's the lack of facts and evidence for god that informs my judgment that there is no god.
What I failed to do in my response to this post was to mention that
tsig's argument was a fallacy - argument from ignorance (I couldn't remember which fallacy it was).
1) My argument is "there is no evidence for the existence of god, therefore we can provisionally conclude there is no god until further evidence is presented."
2) There is evidence against god. That is much more damning.
So I think your argument is:
Premise 1: There is no evidence for the existence of god.
Premise 2: Therefore, provisionally, there is no god pending further evidence
Premise 3: There is evidence against the existence of god
Conclusion: There is no god.
Have I understood you correctly? If so, Premise 2 is invalid. You're saying that there is no evidence for p, therefore not-p. This is an argument from ignorance, and is a fallacy. A more correct premise would be:
Premise 2: Therefore, we don't know whether or not there is a god pending further evidence.
With the change in Premise 2, I think it becomes a logically valid argument. If you want me to accept the conclusion, however, I would need to see and accept the evidence you mention in Premise 3.
I think your argument needs something besides lack of evidence to show absence.
No, that's all I need, actually. But do I have more.
Well, your argument would need more than lack of evidence or it would be an argument from ignorance. But you claim to have evidence that disproves the existence of god and validates your argument. I would be interested in seeing that evidence.
It definitely Hendrix over Clapton.
You poor, deluded soul. Would you like me to PM you some links that prove I am right?
So your argument is:
Premise: There is no evidence for the existence of god.
Conclusion: God doesn't exist.
Not too long ago, a similar argument would have been:
Premise: There is no evidence that bacteria cause disease.
Conclusion: Bacteria don't cause disease.
I think your argument needs something besides lack of evidence to show absence.
When you devise a microscope that shows us god you might have an argument.
Two points: 1. I failed to mention, because I couldn't remember which fallacy it was, that your argument is not valid. It is an argument from ignorance. 2. You seem to be admitting that science is not able (at this point with our current abilities) to find evidence for god. Therefore, isn't god outside the realm of science?
A reminder to remember the situation of other folks we're in conversation with.
After obsessing over these issues for a number of years, its easy to forget that not everyone has done that, and to become impatient.
Thanks for the clarification. And for the consideration. As you note, because I am new to this, the arguments that are old hat to you are new discoveries to me that I need to think about and research.
So your argument is:
Premise: There is no evidence for the existence of god.
Conclusion: God doesn't exist.
Not too long ago, a similar argument would have been:
Premise: There is no evidence that bacteria cause disease.
Conclusion: Bacteria don't cause disease.
I think your argument needs something besides lack of evidence to show absence.
You would have a point if God were something we would not expect to have any normal experience of at all.
But God has never been that. Just ask the folks who have faith in Him.
It's more like this:
I've looked everwhere in this room and haven't detected any live elephants.
A live elephant is too big to be hidden anywhere in this room.
Therefore, there are no live elephants in this room.
I'm not sure I
don't agree with you. The argument that
tsig presented is an argument from ignorance and a fallacy. Whether we expect to have "any normal experience" of God doesn't change the invalidity of his argument.
Your argument seems to be:
Premise 1: There is no evidence of live elephants in this room.
Premise 2: A live elephant is too big to be hidden in this room.
Conclusion: There are no live elephants in this room.
This, I think, would be a valid argument based on Premise 2. Premise 1 is unnecessary; on it's own it would make the argument invalid as an argument from ignorance.
However, I don't see how your argument relates to
tsig's argument about god. Premise 2 doesn't apply to arguments about god; and with just Premise 1, you have the fallacy of an argument from ignorance. Is there something here I am not seeing?