A question for scientists: Primary and Secondary qualities

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Nominated!

BillHoyt,

The third option would be, of course, that I don't do it, because it is irrelevant. I was talking about the theoretically distinguishable battles on this point, i.e. reductionism vs. holism which is not the same thing as reductionism vs. vitalism. These distinctions aren't valid because the battles in question would be hot, but because they show several distinct issues. I just mentioned personally known theoretical biologists with holist or vitalist positions, to show that the debates are alive. But that wasn't my point. My piece was about distinctions, not about the relative strengths or sociological relevance of these positions.

I was surprised you still hadn't realized that. But please, don't let this ruin my nomination :D

Yours gratefully,

Titus
 
Re: Conceptual representation

Titus Rivas said:
69dodge,

The problem would occur, as I have said more than once, whenever we're thinking, talking or writing about the concept of subjective experiences. The distinguishing features should be stored in conceptual memory, as we wouldn't be able to work with our concepts if they weren't.

That really should be enough.

Add whatever you like, but don't expect a reply unless you've understood my point.

Best wishes,

Titus

Titus, I am very grateful for your sddition to the discussion, as you have xplained much. But with all due respect, you are making bold, outrageous assumptions and assertions about the nature of memory and cognition. And it would seem that you do so from a basis of not even reading any modern works by neuro biologists.

"The distinguishing features should be stored in conceptual memory, as we wouldn't be able to work with our concepts if they weren't. "

This si just plain philosophical argumentation, similar to say, you can't do math unless you have all the numbers stored in your head. I would like to discuss this with you, but it seems that you have some deeply held beliefs here. And I dislike arguing about religion.

But the brains is associative and has representational patterns, and there is a bsis for howe the brain can do the things that you say it can't.

Respectfuly

David
 
Interesting Ian said:
You're infuriating!

And you're laughable :D

I explained all this over a year ago in that staying alive thread! :mad: Pity it's gone. I think I may have been arguing about it with Stimp on another thread as well. Can you remember Stimpy? You know, I think I was talking about the replica appearing in an absolutely identical environment. I outargued you comprehensively if you remember?

Well it doesn't surprise me that that's how you remember it :D

Adam, before responding to you I'm going to do a search to try and find what I've written on this in the past.

Go for it.

Adam
 
Damn, I didn't start that far back, I started where you linked to and read to the end of the thread. It's too bad Win never finished what he was going to say.

Anyway, I'm at work so I can't re-read from the page before right now.

But I see nothing new there at all. You're still making the mistake that Materialism would somehow say that two distinct yet identical brains should produce distinguishable consciousness'. This is not what materialism says at all.

Two distinct but identical brains which are indistinguishable except for location in space-time should produce two distinct but identical consciousness' which are indistinguishable except for location in space-time.

I can't say it any clearer than that.

Adam
 
slimshady2357 said:
Damn, I didn't start that far back, I started where you linked to and read to the end of the thread. It's too bad Win never finished what he was going to say.

Anyway, I'm at work so I can't re-read from the page before right now.

But I see nothing new there at all. You're still making the mistake that Materialism would somehow say that two distinct yet identical brains should produce distinguishable consciousness'. This is not what materialism says at all.

Two distinct but identical brains which are indistinguishable except for location in space-time should produce two distinct but identical consciousness' which are indistinguishable except for location in space-time.

I can't say it any clearer than that.

Adam

{shrugs}

I explain that location doesn't matter and even ask people to imagine an identical Universe and so on. No point in repeating myself. I'll just paste this in:

Now in principle an arbitrary number of duplicates could be created of any person. Moreover, each and every duplicate would be a unique stream of consciousness. Further, you yourself allege that these consciousnesses would still represent distinct streams of consciousness, even though they may happen to experience identical indistinguishable environments and hence their behaviour were therefore indistinguishable.

Now let us imagine a parallel Universe which is in all ways is absolutely physically identical to ours. There is another earth in this Universe, and we and everyone else are doing the exact same things. Now I would maintain they really are us. You on the other hand would maintain the 2 Stimpy's represent two distinct streams of consciousnesses.

But if this is so then the totality of physical facts does not explain why you, your particular stream of consciousness exists. It could only ever explain why someone who is indistinguishable from you in their behaviour exists. Hence materialism fails. At least under your formulation.
 
I don't have much time....

But Ian, I claim Materialism would predict this:

Statement 'M'

"Two distinct but identical brains which are indistinguishable except for location in space-time should produce two distinct but identical consciousness' which are indistinguishable except for location in space-time."

Which is exactly what takes place in both your scenarios.

If you have the time could you tell me where Materialism states something that disagrees with statemtent 'M' (thus causing a contradiction). Or, if you think statement 'M' itself is inconsistent with Materialism can you please modify it as little as possible such that you feel it is consistent with Materialism?

Thanks,

Adam
 
Re: Nominated!

Titus Rivas said:
The third option would be, of course, that I don't do it, because it is irrelevant.
Balderdash. You said exactly this:
However, there is a second battle in theoretical biology, and that is the battle between reductionism and vitalism. Vitalism differs from holism in that it claims that biology is irreducible to physics, not primarily because of irreducible laws, but first of all because biology is about a different substance than physics, namely life (Latin: vita). Life would not just be a special manifestation of matter
If such a battle is actually occurring in the various disciplines of theoretical biology, there would be papers from the peer-reviewed journals that clearly evince this. You made the assertion. I called upon you to marshall your evidence. Such evidence is utterly relevant. Your claim otherwise is utterly specious.
I was talking about the theoretically distinguishable battles on this point, i.e. reductionism vs. holism which is not the same thing as reductionism vs. vitalism.
Yes, you were. Nonetheless, you clearly wrote the above. Whether it was a sidebar to your central point or not is irrelevant. It stands as a claim. I have called upon you to marshall evidence.
These distinctions aren't valid because the battles in question would be hot, but because they show several distinct issues. I just mentioned personally known theoretical biologists with holist or vitalist positions, to show that the debates are alive. But that wasn't my point. My piece was about distinctions, not about the relative strengths or sociological relevance of these positions.
The smell of herring is on the ground, but I am still on the trail, barking, sir. I have said nothing about strengths or anything so PoMo as sociological relevance. You made a claim about scientific disciplines. Where is the evidence of this alleged battle in theoretical biology?
 
Re: Re: Re: Hi Kevin

Suggestologist said:
The problem is that this experiment uses behaviorism in a way that MUST reduce to introspectionism.

Consider: How do you know that the two experience the SAME thing?

If you could provide evidence that they did not, then you would have strong evidence that spooky non-physical stuff is involved in mental states.

If the people involved claimed to have identical experiences and reacted to it identically, though, I think you'd have a really hard time providing such evidence.

If the immaterialist position is reduced to asking "How do you know that immaterial effects too small to detect don't exist, huh? Huh?", though, it's already been reduced past the point of complete irrelevance.
 
Re: Re: Re: Re: Hi Kevin

Kevin_Lowe said:


If you could provide evidence that they did not, then you would have strong evidence that spooky non-physical stuff is involved in mental states.

If the people involved claimed to have identical experiences and reacted to it identically, though, I think you'd have a really hard time providing such evidence.


That no more proves that they experience the same thing, than if they were two separate people from the start. The people cannot honestly "claim to have identical experiences" because they do not have direct access to the other's experiences (unless you agree with Interesting Ian that the same entity would be inhabiting both bodies and therefore could directly compare the experiences). Also note that such claims and reports of experience have to be made on introspectionistic terms.


If the immaterialist position is reduced to asking "How do you know that immaterial effects too small to detect don't exist, huh? Huh?", though, it's already been reduced past the point of complete irrelevance.

It hasn't. Your argument is obviously circular. You say: If the observable behavior (through scientific instrument) is the same, then the subjective experience is the same. But that begs the question, which is: How do we know that the subjective experience is the same?
 
Ian,
I explained all this over a year ago in that staying alive thread!
You were wrong then, and you're wrong now.

[Regarding Stimpy]I outargued you comprehensively if you remember?
Does claiming victory really count if no one but you sees it that way?

I explain that location doesn't matter ...
And that's your mistake.

...and even ask people to imagine an identical Universe and so on.
An 'identical' universe can never be identical in *every* physical way. The one physical fact that *must* separate the two is their location within space/time.

Now let us imagine a parallel Universe which is in all ways is absolutely physically identical to ours.
Perhaps this is where your position goes wrong - what precisely do you mean by "parallel universe"? Materialism deals with the rules and behaviour of "the universe". This universe is "everything that physically exists within space/time". The existence, and the properties and behaviours, of a "parallel universe" that exists in a separate space/time (whatever that might mean) has no reference under materialism.

But if this is so then the totality of physical facts does not explain why you, your particular stream of consciousness exists. It could only ever explain why someone who is indistinguishable from you in their behaviour exists.
Again, it's kind of hard to see what you mean by "totality of physical facts" if your initial premise is parallel universes existing in separate space/time frameworks. Do you mean "the totality of physical facts" within each separate universe, or do you mean "the totality of physcial facts" across the two universes?

Even if we look past this, surely there's one "physical fact" that is different?

Consciousness "X" within universe "Y".
Consciousness "X" within universe "Z".

Isn't "the universe in which the consciousness exists" a physical fact?
 
slimshady2357

But Ian, I claim Materialism would predict this:

Statement 'M'

"Two distinct but identical brains which are indistinguishable

I believe that distinct might necessarily mean they are not indistinguishable ;)

Simshady
except for location in space-time should produce two distinct but identical consciousness' which are indistinguishable except for location in space-time."

As an aside to Loki, it really doesn't matter if materialism holds there is a possibility of another Universe or not. I was simply introducing a thought experiemt to illustrate a point.

But to make everyone happy, suppose that our Universe contained only 2 objects, perhaps 2 spheres. Suppose they are separated by some distance, say 10 light seconds, and they are revolving around each other, and both travelling in a direction perpendicular to their plane of revolution at half the speed of light. But hold on a sec here. There is no absolute space. There being no other perspective in the Universe, we cannot distinguish between the 2 spheres between being in the state of affairs outlined, and the spheres simply being "stationary" (not revolving or moving). In other words it is meaningless to assign a particular state to them whether we assign them to be revolving, moving off in a certain direction, or "stationary".

One objection to this would be that we could tell if they were revolving around each other by virtue of the centrafugal "force" generated, or the centrapetal force required to keep the 2 spheres revolving around each other. A good point, but I would say this thought experiment demonstates that centrafugal force only arises because the rest of the Universe exists. This also of course applies to Newtons first law of motion.

So we cannot say that each sphere has a particular location in space. The only thing we can say about their "location" is that they reside at a distance of 10 light seconds away from each other. Crucially it should be noted that from the perspective of sphere "A" we cannot say that sphere B is 10 light seconds away in a certain direction. The same applies from the perspective of B. The concept of direction is just as meaningless as that of ascribing to them a certain motion or the idea that they are revolving around each other.

Now it might be thought that we can at least say that from the perspective of sphere A that sphere B must lie in the precise opposite direction that spere A would reside from the perspective of B. But this would be an error. There is an absolute equivalence between sphere A and sphere B. Whichever sphere we happened to be on, we could never in principle tell which sphere we were on because everything is absolutely identical in all ways. In brief then we can say that both spheres reside in different locations, but this cannot possible have any conceivable consequences since there is an absolute equivalence between them.

Now imagine a Universe with just 2 objects in it, this time 2 rooms. The inside of both rooms are absolutely identical. Moreover in each room there is an Ian (post duplication) with each Ian only experiencing out of his particular body. So in effect we have 2 different streams of consciousnesses. In other words *I*, that is one particular stream of consciousness, experience from one body in one room. Although the other Ian acts identically to me, the other Ian, experiencing out of a different body, might as well be a different person as far as I care about his fate. So we have 2 streams of consciousness which in all ways are identical, but which are neverless still 2 different streams of consciousnesses. And imagine I could be duplicated more than once. In principle I could be duplicated an unlimited number of times. But even if there were a trillion of me, *I*, that is to say one particular stream of consciousness, would only experience out of one single body.

Now materialism maintains that what completely determines a person's selfhood is the totality of physical facts. I mentioned before that this would amount to the totality of physical facts constituing our bodies (in particular the physical processes occurring in the brain) and our environment. Both Slimshady and Loki suggest location is also crucial. But I have just above demonstrated that this cannot possibly be a factor. So in both rooms the totality of physical facts are absolutely identical and therefore materialism must hold that there is only one unique stream of consciousness!

Another way of thinking about this is that if my particular stream of consciousness is only associated with the body of one Ian, out of an unlimited number of Ian's, then clearly the totality of physical facts is insufficient to determine my self. Indeed given that there could be an infinite number of Ians with an infinite number of streams of consciousnesses, then the probability of my particular stream of consciousness having actually come into existence at birth, or conception, or whenever, would be 1/infinity or zero! But this is clearly nonsensical as I do find myself existing! :)

So a materialist cannot maintain that his body could be duplicated, and then for it to subsequently transpire that there are 2 selves, but with each self experiencing their own stream of consciousness. The only way that materialism can possibly be saved is to suppose that if you duplicate a body you would experience out of both bodies simultaneously.

Hmmmm . . I was going to further demonstrate the logically incoherence of 2 identical selves experiencing 2 streams of consciousnesses by considering the duplication experiment itself, but haven't really got time now.
 
Ian

But to make everyone happy, suppose that our Universe contained only 2 objects, perhaps 2 spheres. Suppose they are separated by some distance, say 10 light seconds, and they are revolving around each other, and both travelling in a direction perpendicular to their plane of revolution at half the speed of light. But hold on a sec here. There is no absolute space. There being no other perspective in the Universe, we cannot distinguish between the 2 spheres between being in the state of affairs outlined, and the spheres simply being "stationary" (not revolving or moving). In other words it is meaningless to assign a particular state to them whether we assign them to be revolving, moving off in a certain direction, or "stationary".

You should really learn about a subject before you use it to illustrate your arguments. According to General Relativity, those two states are very much distinguishable. In the first case, there is no inertial reference frame in which both spheres are stationary. In the second there is. In the first case, the two spheres will very slowly converge towards each other, as gravitational radiation bleeds off the rotational kinetic energy. In the second case, the two spheres will fall directly towards each other. In the first case, the spheres must also be spinning in order to keep the same orientation with each other. In the second they do not.

Now it might be thought that we can at least say that from the perspective of sphere A that sphere B must lie in the precise opposite direction that spere A would reside from the perspective of B. But this would be an error. There is an absolute equivalence between sphere A and sphere B. Whichever sphere we happened to be on, we could never in principle tell which sphere we were on because everything is absolutely identical in all ways. In brief then we can say that both spheres reside in different locations, but this cannot possible have any conceivable consequences since there is an absolute equivalence between them.

This equivalence actually has direct consequences in QM, but this is not the kind of absolute equivalence being referred to in the duplicator thought experiment. For one thing, the two duplicates do not exist in isolation from anything else. The instant that the duplicate pops into existence, it will differ from the original in the fact that, because it is at a different spatial position, it is interacting with different energy fields. From a Quantum Mechanical point of view, they instantly become distinguishable.

Now imagine a Universe with just 2 objects in it, this time 2 rooms. The inside of both rooms are absolutely identical. Moreover in each room there is an Ian (post duplication) with each Ian only experiencing out of his particular body. So in effect we have 2 different streams of consciousnesses. In other words *I*, that is one particular stream of consciousness, experience from one body in one room. Although the other Ian acts identically to me, the other Ian, experiencing out of a different body, might as well be a different person as far as I care about his fate. So we have 2 streams of consciousness which in all ways are identical, but which are neverless still 2 different streams of consciousnesses. And imagine I could be duplicated more than once. In principle I could be duplicated an unlimited number of times. But even if there were a trillion of me, *I*, that is to say one particular stream of consciousness, would only experience out of one single body.

Your thought experiment implicitly assumes that there is no interaction, whatsoever, between these different rooms and their contents. This is not physically realistic. In effect, this is just a rephrasing of your prior example, in which the rooms existed in different universes.

Now materialism maintains that what completely determines a person's selfhood is the totality of physical facts. I mentioned before that this would amount to the totality of physical facts constituing our bodies (in particular the physical processes occurring in the brain) and our environment. Both Slimshady and Loki suggest location is also crucial. But I have just above demonstrated that this cannot possibly be a factor.

No, you have not. Your thought experiment only demonstrates that materialism does not allow us to meaningfully talk about multiple non-interacting universes.

So in both rooms the totality of physical facts are absolutely identical and therefore materialism must hold that there is only one unique stream of consciousness!

Materialism must also hold that there is only one room, and one Ian, because materialism holds that there is only one universe, and that everything in it interacts with everything else in it.

So a materialist cannot maintain that his body could be duplicated, and then for it to subsequently transpire that there are 2 selves, but with each self experiencing their own stream of consciousness. The only way that materialism can possibly be saved is to suppose that if you duplicate a body you would experience out of both bodies simultaneously.

Does not follow. In this case, the two bodies are not identical, and neither are the two consciousness. They begin to differ the moment the second one begins existing. The physical facts about the two bodies, and their environments, are clearly not the same. Your entire argument is nonsensical.

Hmmmm . . I was going to further demonstrate the logically incoherence of 2 identical selves experiencing 2 streams of consciousnesses by considering the duplication experiment itself, but haven't really got time now.

What you fail to realize is that it is the existence of two identical selves which is physically impossible. That is not what is meant when we say that, at least for a short time, the two people are indistinguishable. Obviously they are distinguishable, at the very least, in the sense that we can say "that one is to my left, and that one is two my right". That is a difference in the physical facts about them. There are many more.


Dr. Stupid
 
Ian,

In addition to everything Stimpy just said...

Now materialism maintains that what completely determines a person's selfhood is the totality of physical facts. I mentioned before that this would amount to the totality of physical facts constituing our bodies (in particular the physical processes occurring in the brain) and our environment. Both Slimshady and Loki suggest location is also crucial. But I have just above demonstrated that this cannot possibly be a factor. So in both rooms the totality of physical facts are absolutely identical and therefore materialism must hold that there is only one unique stream of consciousness!
Damn this is frustrating - I can see your error, and I think I explain it, but each time you somehow manage to miss the point.

In the above quote you are claiming that the totality of physical facts for the theorectical two rooms is identical. Your reason for claiming this is that you have attempted to construct a scenario in which it is impossible to tell which room you are in. If a person, or recording device, was placed in room 'A' he/it would have no way of determining this, since *everything* about room 'A' - the view, the interaction with all possible internalor external forces/objects, etc - is identical to room 'B'. But this inability to measure any difference doesn't change the fact that - if this scenario was somehow possible under materialism - there *would* in fact be a difference. The two rooms *would* have a physical difference - a different spacve/time location. Simply constructing a scenario that makes this difference "unmeasurable" to anyone or anything within the rooms doesn't eliminate this difference - it simply makes it undetectable.

Imagine a brave adventurer (let's call him "Ian"), trapped in room 'A'. One day he get's just a little too drunk (unusual for such a mild and unassuming intellectual), and he decides to break out and see what what lies outside this room - he wants to explore the rest of the universe. He builds a machine, climbs aboard, and departs from room 'A'. As he moves slowly away into the void surrounding the room, his detectors pick up an object approximately 10 light seconds away. It's another room!! Identical to his own in every way. Suddenly he notices a second, smaller object moving away from the room he has tentatively dubbed 'not-A'. It's a machine, identical to his own - crewed by none other than Ian-not-A. Physically identical in every way - *except for location*.

Help at all?
 
Ian,
in a nutshell I think I can describe why a scientific materialsit would not say that they are the same stream of consiousness, and in fact I have to ask you

Why under Idealism would there be different consiousness at all?

But back to the two identical rooms, the issue is that your are saying that they remain identical afetr the start point. In other ways I think that you are arguing that the processes in the two rooms remain identical after the initial starts phase, in which case they have similar but seperate streams of awareness.

But this is false under the premise of materialism:

HIP-Heisenberg's Indeterminancy Principle says that from the start of the experimental run, the two rooms will diverge immdeatly, in terms of atoms level events.

Chaos theory: points out that you can two systems with identical start constructions, and the small changes in condition will lead to very large changes as time progresses.

Non- HIP randomness: the brain and most of the organic body are very random to begin with, something like breathing. The two yet similar individuals will start to have different heart rates and respiration rates very quickley.

So, the dilemna is that you as the thought experimenter are holding them to be identical, the observed nature of reality, says otherwise.
 
Dancing David said:
Ian,
in a nutshell I think I can describe why a scientific materialsit would not say that they are the same stream of consiousness, and in fact I have to ask you

Why under Idealism would there be different consiousness at all?

But back to the two identical rooms, the issue is that your are saying that they remain identical afetr the start point. In other ways I think that you are arguing that the processes in the two rooms remain identical after the initial starts phase, in which case they have similar but seperate streams of awareness.

But this is false under the premise of materialism:

HIP-Heisenberg's Indeterminancy Principle says that from the start of the experimental run, the two rooms will diverge immdeatly, in terms of atoms level events.

Chaos theory: points out that you can two systems with identical start constructions, and the small changes in condition will lead to very large changes as time progresses.

Non- HIP randomness: the brain and most of the organic body are very random to begin with, something like breathing. The two yet similar individuals will start to have different heart rates and respiration rates very quickley.

So, the dilemna is that you as the thought experimenter are holding them to be identical, the observed nature of reality, says otherwise.

David, the physical impossibility is an irrelevancy to the strength of my argument. Imagine that both Ian's are each in an identical virtual reality if you like.

I have a funny feeling this thread has just been injected with a new lease of life. LOL

BTW, I of course believe that the duplicate would just be a corpse. This must be so since I hold that our physicality cannot miraculously ex nihilo generate consciousness.
 
Re: Re: Re: Re: Re: Hi Kevin

Suggestologist said:
That no more proves that they experience the same thing, than if they were two separate people from the start.

I think at this stage the question is not "can we be sure they had identical experiences", but "can we think of any coherent reason to think that they might not have had identical experiences?".

That's what the thought experience was looking for: The reason the immaterialists think it sensible to believe that the copies might not have identical experiences, given the constraints of the setup.

If there is no such coherent reason, then immaterialism goes in the very large bin labeled "Things That Might Be True, But That We Currently Have No Reason To Believe".

The people cannot honestly "claim to have identical experiences" because they do not have direct access to the other's experiences (unless you agree with Interesting Ian that the same entity would be inhabiting both bodies and therefore could directly compare the experiences). Also note that such claims and reports of experience have to be made on introspectionistic terms.

Sure, but I don't think anything vital hangs on either point. They would report identical experiences, which is as good a verbal result as you can get.

It hasn't. Your argument is obviously circular. You say: If the observable behavior (through scientific instrument) is the same, then the subjective experience is the same. But that begs the question, which is: How do we know that the subjective experience is the same?

Let's be clear about what we are discussing here.

I'm attempting to draw out the basis for immaterialist belief, by asking where in this particular thought experiment the spooky stuff is thought to take action.

My little story doesn't prove anything, let alone prove that brains in identical states are experiencing identical subjective phenomena. It's just that some people think that they aren't, but they are impossible to pin down on why they believe this.

I get the impression that you think I'm making an argument for the absolute truth of materialism, which I'm not. I don't think we get absolute truth, ever, outside the realms of abstract maths. I'm just trying to tease out the thinking involved on the immaterialist end.
 
BillHoyt, would you please share your rational side with us?

Mr Irrelevant said:

You made a claim about scientific disciplines. Where is the evidence of this alleged battle in theoretical biology?
Another question: where is the evidence for your reading abilities? Not on this forum I suppose. :D

We know you're capable of saying a lot of nonsense and even of being very impolite, but what about really interesting remarks that would actually show us some intelligence and maybe even some real rationality? I wouldn't be the only one you'd surprise.

Titus
 
So in both rooms the totality of physical facts are absolutely identical and therefore materialism must hold that there is only one unique stream of consciousness!

As Loki pointed out, this is where you go wrong everytime.

For instance, buy your own arguments there can only be one room and there can only be one Ian too. For the totality of physical facts also constitute the room and the body of Ian. Yet you don't say there is only one room and you don't say there is only one body.

slimshady2357
But Ian, I claim Materialism would predict this:
Statement 'M'
"Two distinct but identical brains which are indistinguishable
I believe that distinct might necessarily mean they are not indistinguishable

That's just plain dishonest of you. My quote was "Two distinct but identical brains which are indistinguishable except for location in space-time"

Perhaps it isn't dishonest, perhaps you're really too thick and stuborn to let yourself see the truth. I think anyone could see that the distinctness comes from the difference in space-time location only. The sentence clearly says that. :rolleyes:

But it's a nice dodge by you since you cannot reply to my query.

I'll state it again.

Statement 'M', predicted by materialism:

"Two distinct but identical brains which are indistinguishable except for location in space-time should produce two distinct but identical consciousness' which are indistinguishable except for location in space-time."

And once again I will point out that this is exactly what happens in your scenarios. No inconsistency.

So, derive a statement from the philosphy of materialism that contradicts statement 'M' or show how materialism does not predict statement 'M'.

Your thought experiment fails on so many levels it funny. First you want to say there are two of each thing and no observers so they are indistinguishable. Well if there are no observers it makes no sense to say whether they are indistinguishable or not, the distinguishability is unknown without an observer. Confusion number 1. Second, even if you could say (which is wrong) that the two consciousness' are the same simply because no one is there to observe the physical differences (location) which do exist, you would have to say there is only one room and one brain too, in which case materialism still has no inconsistencies. One brain makes one consciousness.

This is really some of the poorest reasoning I've seen from you Ian. It sure wouldn't surprise me if this was the quality of all your so-called 'proofs that materialism is inconsistent'.

Adam
 

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