A priori synthetic statements

Paul said

Schlitz is just being silly

Which is an argument from handwaving and unsubstantiated accusations of silliness. i.e. no argument supplied.

You asked me what my favourite result was, and I supplied the answer. You then demonstrated exactly why it is my favourite result: skeptics can't actually explain what is wrong with it, apart from to claim that is is "silly" i.e. it happens to fall outside the box they think inside, a box which is ultimately defined by what is and is not "silly" from the POV of materialism. Why should I accept your "argument from silliness" instead of accepting the actual result of the experiment? :con2:
 
Paul

I do not mean that behavior can alter physical law. If that's what Schlitz means then she is just being silly.

Actually, there is an important point that needs re-iterating here. Nobody is claiming that physical LAWS are altered. I said "behaviour" was altered, but not to the point where LAWS are altered. There is scope within current laws for PSI phenomena, provided they do not actually break existing laws. The sort of phenomena I am talking about are not levitating objects in defiance of the laws of gravity, but results which are stastical in nature and indicate something has happened which appears to defy probability. In other words, something has happened which seems incredibly unlikely, but isn't actually impossible according to established physical law. This is because it is based upon events which look acausal to us actually having a cause which is hidden from us. But no laws are broken (or altered), because from the POV of physics the events are still strictly acausal - even thought they look as if they are being co-ordinated/caused.

All of which emphasises the point that it is not science and physical law which makes PSI look silly, but the materialistic metaphysics which sometimes hitches a free ride on the back of those things which makes PSI look silly. And while you have evidence for the existence of the physical laws, you don't have any evidence for believing materialism is true.
 
Geoff said:
Which is an argument from handwaving and unsubstantiated accusations of silliness. i.e. no argument supplied.
Just like Schlitz's argument, which is entirely unsubstantiated. Where is the model/theory behind her claim that the experimenter effect is itself psi?

You asked me what my favourite result was, and I supplied the answer. You then demonstrated exactly why it is my favourite result: skeptics can't actually explain what is wrong with it, apart from to claim that is is "silly" i.e. it happens to fall outside the box they think inside, a box which is ultimately defined by what is and is not "silly" from the POV of materialism. Why should I accept your "argument from silliness" instead of accepting the actual result of the experiment?
You don't know what the "actual result" of the experiment is! You have begged the entire question of the theory behind psi by claiming it is some sort of metamind. Then you say that can explain the experiment effect. You can do no such thing, except as an extension of the original question begging.

I accept the experimental results. I can't think of anything wrong with the procedure or statistical analysis. Yet I do not feel obliged to make the leap of faith to paranormal explanations.

Actually, there is an important point that needs re-iterating here. Nobody is claiming that physical LAWS are altered. I said "behaviour" was altered, but not to the point where LAWS are altered. There is scope within current laws for PSI phenomena, provided they do not actually break existing laws. The sort of phenomena I am talking about are not levitating objects in defiance of the laws of gravity, but results which are stastical in nature and indicate something has happened which appears to defy probability. In other words, something has happened which seems incredibly unlikely, but isn't actually impossible according to established physical law. This is because it is based upon events which look acausal to us actually having a cause which is hidden from us. But no laws are broken (or altered), because from the POV of physics the events are still strictly acausal - even thought they look as if they are being co-ordinated/caused.
So there is a source of the psi effect, causal in nature, that physics cannot investigate? Or is it just that it hasn't found it yet? If the former, I have no idea what that means. If the latter, then I agree that we haven't yet found the cause of the experimenter effect. I presume psi investigators are all over it, trying to replicate it and understand it.

All of which emphasises the point that it is not science and physical law which makes PSI look silly, but the materialistic metaphysics which sometimes hitches a free ride on the back of those things which makes PSI look silly. And while you have evidence for the existence of the physical laws, you don't have any evidence for believing materialism is true.
According to every definition presented, I don't think materialism is true. As an ontology, I think it's incoherent.

"When there has been a failure to replicate, it is not appropriate to engage in the circularity of assigning to this failure a label (psi-experimenter effect), and then implicitly suggesting the label as its explanation. Since there is no other way of defining or identifying the psi-experimenter effect, it has no explanatory value. Using it as a possible explanation only leads to a tautology: By substituting the definition of the psi-experimenter effect, one gets: 'The failure to replicate may be a manifestation of "one researcher failing to replicate a finding that another researcher had made".' This circular reasoning excludes from the debate a possibly fruitful aspect of research, in terms of coming to understand the reasons, other than psi, that might account for the fact that different experimenters have obtained different results."
---James Alcock
 
Originally posted by Kevin_Lowe

What you keep trying to do is beg the question by arbitrarily defining consciousness as spooky, and everything else as non-spooky, so you can act like you have discovered a genuine problem when you cry "But how can spookiness arise from non-spookiness? I have defined myself into a paradox!". I reject your definition of consciousness as spooky.


You're just not listening to me.
 
Hello Paul

Just like Schlitz's argument, which is entirely unsubstantiated.

....apart from by the results of the experiment.

Where is the model/theory behind her claim that the experimenter effect is itself psi?

That claim has been part of the "canon" of PSI claims for a long time. The view that the attitudes and beliefs of a person can affect what happens to them via a form of cause and effect unknown to physical science is a central feature of much of the serious writing that has taken place about this - from Jung to Robert Anton Wilson.

And anyway - quite often when an unexpected result occurs in a scientific experiment there isn't any firmly decided-upon theory to explain it - this doesn't come until later in the process, long after the effect has been recognised and acknowledged. So from a scientific point of view, further experiments are required and I believe they are due to take place this year. But from the point of view of parapsychology this theory has been around for a long time. If you want to investigate it further then I can recomend Wilson as a thought-provoking source of information. The trouble with this is it opens up questions about whether science can actually do anything with this result. It may just leave an unresolvable question from the POV of science.

Wilson wrote a book (several, actually) about what happens to people who experiment with their own belief systems and their own experiences of reality - and he encourages people to do the same themselves. NB: He tells nobody what to believe but insists they must seek the truth for themselves. But that isn't really science because each of us only has access to one subjective reality and nobody else can witness what occurs in it. Which brings us right back round to the difference between us which causes the argument to be unresolvable in the first place - people like Ian and myself are willing to take into account the evidence of our own direct experience of reality, whereas the materialistic skeptics are left denying that we can even be sure such a thing exists - unless they simply define it to be physical, resulting in 1st-person evidence being worthless.

Not only do I know I have a mind, I also know what is happening in it.


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You asked me what my favourite result was, and I supplied the answer. You then demonstrated exactly why it is my favourite result: skeptics can't actually explain what is wrong with it, apart from to claim that is is "silly" i.e. it happens to fall outside the box they think inside, a box which is ultimately defined by what is and is not "silly" from the POV of materialism. Why should I accept your "argument from silliness" instead of accepting the actual result of the experiment?
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You don't know what the "actual result" of the experiment is! You have begged the entire question of the theory behind psi by claiming it is some sort of metamind.

I have got no idea what you mean by "begged the entire question". You started by claiming there was no difference between materialism and idealism, Paul. I responded by explaining that the difference is that materialism seems to rule out these phenomena and all the other ontologies, including idealism, do not. I did not say which other one of them was true. I did not even say that any of them was completely true at the expense of all the others. What I did say was that only physicalism rules out the sort of PSI phenomena we are talking about now. But instead of acknowledging that this really does make a difference, you are complaining that I can't give you a precise theoretical exposition of what the alternative theory is, which is something I never claimed I could supply/prove and something which doesn't matter with regards to original point I was defending. Perhaps we could get back to that original point??? Do you now accept that there are various ways in which the other ontologies could allow for PSI, regardless of the fact we can't objectively test/prove which one is "correct"?

Then you say that can explain the experiment effect. You can do no such thing, except as an extension of the original question begging.

Why? There has been no "question begging", Paul. There has instead been an attempt to direct attention and debate away from the original point. You are trying to make capital out of the fact that may be no objective means of resolving this, when the real issue is whether or not ditching materialism makes PSI phenomena less impossible to believe. i.e. your "question begging" complaint is a straw man.

I accept the experimental results. I can't think of anything wrong with the procedure or statistical analysis. Yet I do not feel obliged to make the leap of faith to paranormal explanations.

EXACTLY. That is exactly the situation.

For YOU, accepting Schlitz's explanations requires a leap of faith - a leap out of faith in materialism or the sort of neo-materialism which you seem to hold to which seems to involve thinking/believing like a materialist without actually saying you are are a materialist.

For ME, who rejected materialism quite a few years ago on the grounds that something I had previously had faith in didn't stand up to logical scrutiny, and who believes, rightly or wrongly, that he has witnessed similar phenomena himself, no leap of faith is required.

Whether or not you require a leap of faith depends on your (implied) metaphysical position. That is why it makes a difference whether you are a materialist or not a materialist, and that is the point I was originally defending. I am not expecting you to nake that leap of faith. But I am hoping you will recognise why you need a leap of faith and I don't, and why this supports my claim that ditching ones faith in materialism does indeed make a difference.

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Actually, there is an important point that needs re-iterating here. Nobody is claiming that physical LAWS are altered. I said "behaviour" was altered, but not to the point where LAWS are altered. There is scope within current laws for PSI phenomena, provided they do not actually break existing laws. The sort of phenomena I am talking about are not levitating objects in defiance of the laws of gravity, but results which are stastical in nature and indicate something has happened which appears to defy probability. In other words, something has happened which seems incredibly unlikely, but isn't actually impossible according to established physical law. This is because it is based upon events which look acausal to us actually having a cause which is hidden from us. But no laws are broken (or altered), because from the POV of physics the events are still strictly acausal - even thought they look as if they are being co-ordinated/caused.
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So there is a source of the psi effect, causal in nature, that physics cannot investigate? Or is it just that it hasn't found it yet?

It may be that physics reaches a boundary it cannot cross, and it may be that this boundary involves trying to link cause to effect when "cause" is something like "free will" and "effect" manifests itself via acausal quantum events. I can't see how physics can go there, no. Individual people might be able to, but not physics.

If the former, I have no idea what that means.

Why? What's so hard to understand? :con2:

If the latter, then I agree that we haven't yet found the cause of the experimenter effect. I presume psi investigators are all over it, trying to replicate it and understand it.

There is interest, yes. There is also interest from scientists involved with drug trials because what is being proposed has features in common with the placebo effect. The placebo effect is both well-known and poorly understood. It is an anomaly itself. If Schlitz's claim is true then the placebo effect is no longer unexpected.


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All of which emphasises the point that it is not science and physical law which makes PSI look silly, but the materialistic metaphysics which sometimes hitches a free ride on the back of those things which makes PSI look silly. And while you have evidence for the existence of the physical laws, you don't have any evidence for believing materialism is true.
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According to every definition presented, I don't think materialism is true. As an ontology, I think it's incoherent.

So you think it is incoherent, and you also think it is equivalent to idealism? In that case it follows that both of them are incoherent, which is my own position. So what is wrong with neutral monism? Is that also incoherent? If so, why?

"When there has been a failure to replicate, it is not appropriate to engage in the circularity of assigning to this failure a label (psi-experimenter effect), and then implicitly suggesting the label as its explanation.

But this is a blatant misrepresentation of the facts! :D

There has been no "failure to replicate". That one was nailed the second and third times the experiment was run and Schlitz REPEATED her result and Wiseman REPEATED his failure to replicate her results. The whole reason the experiment was repeated three times, the last time going to herculean efforts to eliminate any unknown source of discrepancy, was so that the skeptics could no longer claim there had been no repetition of results. What has been REPEATED, three times, is that when Schlitz carries out the experiment she gets a positive result and Wiseman carries out the same experiment he gets a negative result.

Where is the circularity?

If the "experimenter effect" is real, then how many times does Schlitz have to get a result and Wiseman get a non-result before the skeptics accept that this is a valid repeat demonstration of that effect?

Or are you trying to argue that the experimenter effect is not a valid example of PSI?

Since there is no other way of defining or identifying the psi-experimenter effect, it has no explanatory value.

Eh? You are beginning to sound like Stimpson. J. Cat. I think what you mean is that you don't like the explanation.

Using it as a possible explanation only leads to a tautology: By substituting the definition of the psi-experimenter effect, one gets: 'The failure to replicate may be a manifestation of "one researcher failing to replicate a finding that another researcher had made".

REPEAT: This is NOT a "failure to replicate". It would be a failure to replicate only if Schlitz did not always get a positive result or Wiseman did not always get a negative result. This may well prove to be a barrier that science can't cross: indeed, that was the entire point of the New Scientist issue that contained all these stories. The headline on the the cover was "Why the paranormal will not surrender to science." But acknowledging that we may have a barrier that science (as we know it) cannot cross, is NOT the same as claiming it is meaningless. Far from it. What is means is that all the people who want to go around claiming that science has proven that PSI phenomena don't exist are making unsubstantiated and unsubstantiable claims. So it is hardly surprising that accepting this result is resisted at every turn and in every way possible.

' This circular reasoning excludes from the debate a possibly fruitful aspect of research, in terms of coming to understand the reasons, other than psi, that might account for the fact that different experimenters have obtained different results."
---James Alcock

In other words "we can't accept it's PSI, and we want to accuse you of not exploring other explanations properly". Pure bunkum. Every possible effort has been made to explore those other explanations. The skeptics ran out of ideas.

Geoff
 
Huntsman said:
I have a 3 and a half year old at home.

He often walks up while I'm on the computer.

The conversation often goes like this:

Son: What game are you playing?

Me: A fnatasy game.

Son: What kind of fantasy game?

Me: It's called Wizardry 8.

Son: What kind of fantasy game called Wizardry 8?

Me: Um, it's just called Wizardry 8, there's no more kinds.

Son: But what kind?

Maybe it's just me, but I see an analogy in this argument.

I agree. This whole "debate" between on the one side myself and David Smith, and on the other side Kevin Lowe and Stimpson J Cat, is one colossal waste of time. I've had enough.

Oh and BTW, my computer still hasn't rebooted :)

I'm going to have a drink!
 
Paul C. Anagnostopoulos said:
James Alcock
"When there has been a failure to replicate, it is not appropriate to engage in the circularity of assigning to this failure a label (psi-experimenter effect), and then implicitly suggesting the label as its explanation. Since there is no other way of defining or identifying the psi-experimenter effect, it has no explanatory value".

No evidential value surely? It has explanatory value. A hypothesis can explain something even if there is no support for such a hypothesis.

Moreover it would be easy enough to gather evidence. The first time it happens it has no evidential value because that would be effectively data mining. But if we continue to always witness such an experimenter effect, then it becomes much more interesting.
 
Geoff said:
Whether or not you require a leap of faith depends on your (implied) metaphysical position. That is why it makes a difference whether you are a materialist or not a materialist, and that is the point I was originally defending. I am not expecting you to nake that leap of faith. But I am hoping you will recognise why you need a leap of faith and I don't, and why this supports my claim that ditching ones faith in materialism does indeed make a difference.
You need just as much a leap of faith as I do, you just made the leap of faith in a general way by accepting an explanation of reality that brings all the little leaps along with it for free.

It may be that physics reaches a boundary it cannot cross, and it may be that this boundary involves trying to link cause to effect when "cause" is something like "free will" and "effect" manifests itself via acausal quantum events. I can't see how physics can go there, no. Individual people might be able to, but not physics.
I don't know what it means for free will (which is undefined) to be the cause of acausal quantum events.

Why? What's so hard to understand?
See above.

So you think it is incoherent, and you also think it is equivalent to idealism? In that case it follows that both of them are incoherent, which is my own position. So what is wrong with neutral monism? Is that also incoherent? If so, why?
I think ontology is incoherent in general. However, if philosophers were to carefully define their favorite batch of ontologies so that they account for what we observe, without any unexplained miracles, I believe we would find the ontologies to be equivalent. After all, their purpose is to explain reality, and they are all explaining the same reality.

There has been no "failure to replicate". That one was nailed the second and third times the experiment was run and Schlitz REPEATED her result and Wiseman REPEATED his failure to replicate her results. The whole reason the experiment was repeated three times, the last time going to herculean efforts to eliminate any unknown source of discrepancy, was so that the skeptics could no longer claim there had been no repetition of results. What has been REPEATED, three times, is that when Schlitz carries out the experiment she gets a positive result and Wiseman carries out the same experiment he gets a negative result.
You just said there was no failure to replicate, yet Wiseman failed to replicate. The explanation for his failure to replicate is taken as the experimenter effect, which is defined to be whatever causes a failure to replicate. Is there another definition of the experimenter effect that I don't know?

If the "experimenter effect" is real, then how many times does Schlitz have to get a result and Wiseman get a non-result before the skeptics accept that this is a valid repeat demonstration of that effect?
It is a repeated demonstration of the experimenter effect, namely that two experimenters get different results. I accept that. But it tells me nothing.

Or are you trying to argue that the experimenter effect is not a valid example of PSI?
It might be, but that remains to be seen, just like the rest of psi.

Eh? You are beginning to sound like Stimpson. J. Cat. I think what you mean is that you don't like the explanation.
James Alcock said it, not me. There is no explanation. What is the explanation of the experimenter effect?

REPEAT: This is NOT a "failure to replicate". It would be a failure to replicate only if Schlitz did not always get a positive result or Wiseman did not always get a negative result.
Wiseman fails to replicate Schlitz. That would be a "failure to replicate."

In other words "we can't accept it's PSI, and we want to accuse you of not exploring other explanations properly". Pure bunkum. Every possible effort has been made to explore those other explanations. The skeptics ran out of ideas.
And this is proof that the experimenter effect is psi? What happens if someone comes up with an explanation in a few years? Will the proof evaporate?

~~ Paul
 
Ian said:
Moreover it would be easy enough to gather evidence. The first time it happens it has no evidential value because that would be effectively data mining. But if we continue to always witness such an experimenter effect, then it becomes much more interesting.
Oh, it's interesting all right. Tantalizing. I can't wait for more experiments from Schlitz and Wiseman.

~~ Paul
 
Paul

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Geoff said:
Whether or not you require a leap of faith depends on your (implied) metaphysical position. That is why it makes a difference whether you are a materialist or not a materialist, and that is the point I was originally defending. I am not expecting you to nake that leap of faith. But I am hoping you will recognise why you need a leap of faith and I don't, and why this supports my claim that ditching ones faith in materialism does indeed make a difference.
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You need just as much a leap of faith as I do, you just made the leap of faith in a general way by accepting an explanation of reality that brings all the little leaps along with it for free.

Not quite true. I rejected an explanation of reality which doesn't make sense (materialism). I did not "accept" another specific alternative (although I did for a while). It did not take a leap of faith to reject materialism - that was the result of logical deduction. And all the alternatives make PSI seem less impossible than it does under materialism.

So where is my leap of faith? I think you have a faith, and I don't. I may have a belief system which rests on inductive reasoning, but that's not the same as "faith".

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It may be that physics reaches a boundary it cannot cross, and it may be that this boundary involves trying to link cause to effect when "cause" is something like "free will" and "effect" manifests itself via acausal quantum events. I can't see how physics can go there, no. Individual people might be able to, but not physics.
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I don't know what it means for free will (which is undefined) to be the cause of acausal quantum events.

Repeat: Why is that hard to understand?

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Why? What's so hard to understand?
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See above.

See what? :con2:

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So you think it is incoherent, and you also think it is equivalent to idealism? In that case it follows that both of them are incoherent, which is my own position. So what is wrong with neutral monism? Is that also incoherent? If so, why?
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I think ontology is incoherent in general. However, if philosophers were to carefully define their favorite batch of ontologies so that they account for what we observe, without any unexplained miracles, I believe we would find the ontologies to be equivalent. After all, their purpose is to explain reality, and they are all explaining the same reality.

Account for what WHO observes????

You have assumed everybody observes the same thing, and we are discussing a situation where they don't.

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There has been no "failure to replicate". That one was nailed the second and third times the experiment was run and Schlitz REPEATED her result and Wiseman REPEATED his failure to replicate her results. The whole reason the experiment was repeated three times, the last time going to herculean efforts to eliminate any unknown source of discrepancy, was so that the skeptics could no longer claim there had been no repetition of results. What has been REPEATED, three times, is that when Schlitz carries out the experiment she gets a positive result and Wiseman carries out the same experiment he gets a negative result.
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You just said there was no failure to replicate, yet Wiseman failed to replicate.

Oh come on Paul, stop acting dumb. Can't you read? :(

That argument only works if the experiment (here "the experiment" means BOTH the Wiseman and Schliz tests in parallel) was a one-off and had not itself been repeated three times. Why are you pretending you can't understand this? What's the problem?

The explanation for his failure to replicate is taken as the experimenter effect, which is defined to be whatever causes a failure to replicate. Is there another definition of the experimenter effect that I don't know?

What's wrong with that one? Given that we are talking about a parallel experiment which was deliberately designed to demonstrate exactly this effect, and which subsequently succeeded in doing so, there has been a replication of the disputed result. Twice. You are left arguing that the original failure to replicate in the first case is somehow more important than the fact that the experiment was repeated twice more and the results were the same on all three occasions. And you don't see why that's a fallacious argument? I don't think you're looking hard enough. :(

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If the "experimenter effect" is real, then how many times does Schlitz have to get a result and Wiseman get a non-result before the skeptics accept that this is a valid repeat demonstration of that effect?
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It is a repeated demonstration of the experimenter effect, namely that two experimenters get different results. I accept that. But it tells me nothing.

Really? It tells me that two experiments can carry out the same test for PSI phenomena and repeatedly get different results. You think that's not relevant to this discussion? :eek:

It couldn't be more relevant, because it demonstrates exactly what the New Scientist article was claiming: that the paranormal will not surrender to science and that we are not in a position to conclude that PSI phenomena don't exist, and that it is possible that we never will be. That runs a coach and horses through the million dollar challenge (because it becomes clear that it is in fact unwinnable even if PSI phenomena do exist). It makes Randi's prize meaningless, instead of the proof of the non-existence of PSI that it is repeatedly claimed to be.

It represents the stalemate that this was always going to be and IS always going to be. The paranormalists can't ever prove PSI exists and the skeptics can't ever prove it doesn't. This only causes a problem to people who want everyone else to think like they do, which apparently includes most of the peope who post at this site.

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Or are you trying to argue that the experimenter effect is not a valid example of PSI?
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It might be, but that remains to be seen, just like the rest of psi.

....or not seen, depending on whether you actually go look for it.

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Eh? You are beginning to sound like Stimpson. J. Cat. I think what you mean is that you don't like the explanation.
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James Alcock said it, not me. There is no explanation. What is the explanation of the experimenter effect?

The explanation is that reality doesn't behave the same for everybody and what people believe can influence the result of an experiment in ways that physical science can't fully explain. If you want a non-scientific explanation there are plenty, but being non-scientific you have to investigate it personally, from a first-person perspective and seek your own explanation.

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REPEAT: This is NOT a "failure to replicate". It would be a failure to replicate only if Schlitz did not always get a positive result or Wiseman did not always get a negative result.

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Wiseman fails to replicate Schlitz. That would be a "failure to replicate."

Only if you either didn't read my repeated explanation of why that is a fallacious argument or you insist on pretending to be much more stupid than you really are because the argument is really easy to understand. It looks rather like you just keep repeating that "Wiseman fails to replicate Schlitz", because it's the only thing you can think of to say. :(

The fact that Wiseman ALWAYS fails to replicate Schlitz is a repetition in itself. Why on earth is that so hard to comprehend?


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In other words "we can't accept it's PSI, and we want to accuse you of not exploring other explanations properly". Pure bunkum. Every possible effort has been made to explore those other explanations. The skeptics ran out of ideas.
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And this is proof that the experimenter effect is psi?

NO. It is proof that science cannot resolve the question AT ALL. There is only one way to know for sure that PSI exists, and that is to experience it yourself. But there is NO way to know for sure that it doesn't exist, and neither will there ever be.


What happens if someone comes up with an explanation in a few years? Will the proof evaporate?

I cannot comment on that. It's an entirely hypothetical question. If somebody comes along and provides a normal explanation for why Schlitz gets results and Wiseman doesn't then it does indeed potentially change the situation, especially if there are no other examples of the same effect. But we aren't in that position. We are where we are now.

Geoff
 
Geoff said:
Repeat: Why is that hard to understand?
Because I don't know what free will is, and I don't know what it means for an uncaused event to have a cause.

You have assumed everybody observes the same thing, and we are discussing a situation where they don't.
So then ontologies are based on the varying beliefs of the philosophers who make them up. This does not increase my faith in the worth of ontology.

That argument only works if the experiment (here "the experiment" means BOTH the Wiseman and Schliz tests in parallel) was a one-off and had not itself been repeated three times. Why are you pretending you can't understand this? What's the problem?
The problem is that Wiseman has failed to replicate Schlitz's results. That is a failure to replicate. The fact that he failed to replicate it multiple times does not suddenly eliminate the failure to replicate.

But, sure, let's say it does. That means that "experimenter effect" is not defined as the the difference between a successful and failed experiment that used the same protocol but different experimenters. So what is its definition? Surely not any difference between two experiments using the same protocol but different experimenters? If so, then the experimenter effect explains all the differences in psi experiments except those with the same experimenter (and perhaps even then, since it has been suggested there could be an experimenter effect with the same person). So I guess the experimenter effect explains some of the differences among psi experimenters, though we don't know which ones. Is that a vapid enough definition?

What's wrong with that one? Given that we are talking about a parallel experiment which was deliberately designed to demonstrate exactly this effect, and which subsequently succeeded in doing so, there has been a replication of the disputed result. Twice. You are left arguing that the original failure to replicate in the first case is somehow more important than the fact that the experiment was repeated twice more and the results were the same on all three occasions. And you don't see why that's a fallacious argument? I don't think you're looking hard enough.
You're not distinguishing between (a) the failure of Wiseman to replicate Schlitz; and (b) the ability to replicate that failure.

Really? It tells me that two experiments can carry out the same test for PSI phenomena and repeatedly get different results. You think that's not relevant to this discussion?
It's relevant if it's true. But you are merely assuming that the experiments were identical. Schlitz and Wiseman don't even believe that.

It represents the stalemate that this was always going to be and IS always going to be. The paranormalists can't ever prove PSI exists and the skeptics can't ever prove it doesn't. This only causes a problem to people who want everyone else to think like they do, which apparently includes most of the peope who post at this site.
You're confusing my interest in discussing this matter with my giving a damn whether you think like I do.

The explanation is that reality doesn't behave the same for everybody and what people believe can influence the result of an experiment in ways that physical science can't fully explain. If you want a non-scientific explanation there are plenty, but being non-scientific you have to investigate it personally, from a first-person perspective and seek your own explanation.
Cripes, Geoff, that's no explanation. That's one possibility among many for the experimenter effect.

The fact that Wiseman ALWAYS fails to replicate Schlitz is a repetition in itself. Why on earth is that so hard to comprehend?
I agree completely, but that's doesn't eliminate Wiseman's failures to replicate Schlitz.

NO. It is proof that science cannot resolve the question AT ALL. There is only one way to know for sure that PSI exists, and that is to experience it yourself. But there is NO way to know for sure that it doesn't exist, and neither will there ever be.
Please tell Schlitz and Wiseman, who continue to waste their time repeating these experiments. We'll see another paper on it in August. I think they may be trying to convince other research pairs to waste their time, too!

I cannot comment on that. It's an entirely hypothetical question. If somebody comes along and provides a normal explanation for why Schlitz gets results and Wiseman doesn't then it does indeed potentially change the situation, especially if there are no other examples of the same effect. But we aren't in that position. We are where we are now.
Which is waiting to see what happens ...

~~ Paul
 
Paul

Because I don't know what free will is, and I don't know what it means for an uncaused event to have a cause.

Well, fairly obviously, in this case "free will" is something which influences the outcome of what look like acausal events. Again, I'm not sure why you are having so much difficulty understanding this. It looks uncaused from the POV of physics but in truth there are no acausal events, only a form of causality that lies outide the realm of physics. i.e. Something like what has been called "karma".

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You have assumed everybody observes the same thing, and we are discussing a situation where they don't.
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So then ontologies are based on the varying beliefs of the philosophers who make them up.

I didn't say that. All I said was that there are ontological positions which allow for these sorts of phenomena.

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That argument only works if the experiment (here "the experiment" means BOTH the Wiseman and Schliz tests in parallel) was a one-off and had not itself been repeated three times. Why are you pretending you can't understand this? What's the problem?
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The problem is that Wiseman has failed to replicate Schlitz's results. That is a failure to replicate.....

This is getting boring. :(

The fact that he failed to replicate it multiple times does not suddenly eliminate the failure to replicate.

I think you are deliberately "misunderstanding" me. You have now four times tried to claim that the initial failure of Wiseman to replicate Schlitz is all that matters - even though I have four times reminded you that we are talking about a situation where the experiment was done in parallel and the results of that parallel experiment was consistent. Oddly enough, in your replies you never mention this second bit of the argument. You just keep repeating your claim about the first bit, as if the second bit doesn't make any difference to what I mean by "replicate"

So for a fifth time I will explain it.

In the initial experiment "replicate" refers to Wisemans failure to replicate Schlitz. This is a failure to replicate the results about REMOTE STARING.

In the second two experiments there was a deliberate attempt to investigate THE EXPERIMENTER EFFECT. In this case, the results were replicated.

Now....are you going to respond for a fifth time by saying...."The problem is that Wiseman has failed to replicate Schlitz's results. That is a failure to replicate....." as if you were unable to comprehend me because I was writing to you in some alien language like Swahili? :rolleyes:

But, sure, let's say it does.

Actually, I'd rather get a proper admission from you that it actually does, because it actually does.

That means that "experimenter effect" is not defined as the the difference between a successful and failed experiment that used the same protocol but different experimenters. So what is its definition? Surely not any difference between two experiments using the same protocol but different experimenters? If so, then the experimenter effect explains all the differences in psi experiments except those with the same experimenter (and perhaps even then, since it has been suggested there could be an experimenter effect with the same person). So I guess the experimenter effect explains some of the differences among psi experimenters, though we don't know which ones. Is that a vapid enough definition?

"vapid"? :con2:

Yes. It means that the beliefs and attitudes of the person carrying out the experiment, at the time they carry out the experiment, can influence the result of the experiment. And yes, this does offer an explanation as to why people who to looking for PSI effects often get small statistical positives and people who set about trying to demonstrate it doesn't exist get nothing. As I said two days ago: it means the mechanism is "slippery". It means it won't surrender to science.

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What's wrong with that one? Given that we are talking about a parallel experiment which was deliberately designed to demonstrate exactly this effect, and which subsequently succeeded in doing so, there has been a replication of the disputed result. Twice. You are left arguing that the original failure to replicate in the first case is somehow more important than the fact that the experiment was repeated twice more and the results were the same on all three occasions. And you don't see why that's a fallacious argument? I don't think you're looking hard enough.
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You're not distinguishing between (a) the failure of Wiseman to replicate Schlitz; and (b) the ability to replicate that failure.

No, Paul, it is you who doesn't seem to be able to tell the difference between these things. The failure of wiseman to replicate Schlitz (a) makes the results regarding remote staring ambiguous/unreliable. The ability to replicate that failure (b) at the same time as Schlitz replicated HER success tells us that there may well be such a thing as the experimenter effect.
I have been trying to get you to accept the difference between these two things and it is you who keeps pretending you don't understand the difference. Not me. :(

We have a replication of the experimenter effect. We only have an ambiguous/uncertain replication of the remote staring effect. Have we got that straight now?

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Really? It tells me that two experiments can carry out the same test for PSI phenomena and repeatedly get different results. You think that's not relevant to this discussion?
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It's relevant if it's true. But you are merely assuming that the experiments were identical. Schlitz and Wiseman don't even believe that.

Ah, right. So after all this you decide to go back and claim that the experiments were'n't identical??? Isn't it a bit late in the day to completely change your argument?

What do Schlitz and Wiseman claim was different? As far as I was aware they made every possible effort to make sure they were the same.

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It represents the stalemate that this was always going to be and IS always going to be. The paranormalists can't ever prove PSI exists and the skeptics can't ever prove it doesn't. This only causes a problem to people who want everyone else to think like they do, which apparently includes most of the peope who post at this site.
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You're confusing my interest in discussing this matter with my giving a damn whether you think like I do.

Maybe. If so, I am sorry, but it is very frustrating talking to a person who keeps ignoring the most important part of what I am saying, as if I simply didn't say it. :(

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The explanation is that reality doesn't behave the same for everybody and what people believe can influence the result of an experiment in ways that physical science can't fully explain. If you want a non-scientific explanation there are plenty, but being non-scientific you have to investigate it personally, from a first-person perspective and seek your own explanation.
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Cripes, Geoff, that's no explanation. That's one possibility among many for the experimenter effect.

You mean it's not a complete explanation? Sure it's not. In fact I am saying that we may NEVER have a complete, objectively verifiable and bulletproof explanation of these things. It may always come down to subjective experience and subjective judgement.

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The fact that Wiseman ALWAYS fails to replicate Schlitz is a repetition in itself. Why on earth is that so hard to comprehend?
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I agree completely, but that's doesn't eliminate Wiseman's failures to replicate Schlitz.

It makes them totally irrelevant to this discussion unless we happened to be talking about the evidence for remote statring. But we aren't, are we? We are talking about the experimenter effect!

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NO. It is proof that science cannot resolve the question AT ALL. There is only one way to know for sure that PSI exists, and that is to experience it yourself. But there is NO way to know for sure that it doesn't exist, and neither will there ever be.
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Please tell Schlitz and Wiseman, who continue to waste their time repeating these experiments. We'll see another paper on it in
August. I think they may be trying to convince other research pairs to waste their time, too!

Yep, wasting their time driving a coach and horses through the whole rationale behind Randis unwinnable million dollar prize.

To me, that looks like progress. And if you were genuinely interested in finding out the truth about this then I think it ought to look like progress to you also. So why do you keep making out it's a waste of time?

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I cannot comment on that. It's an entirely hypothetical question. If somebody comes along and provides a normal explanation for why Schlitz gets results and Wiseman doesn't then it does indeed potentially change the situation, especially if there are no other examples of the same effect. But we aren't in that position. We are where we are now.
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Which is waiting to see what happens ...

Indeed.
 
Geoff said:
Well, fairly obviously, in this case "free will" is something which influences the outcome of what look like acausal events. Again, I'm not sure why you are having so much difficulty understanding this. It looks uncaused from the POV of physics but in truth there are no acausal events, only a form of causality that lies outide the realm of physics. i.e. Something like what has been called "karma".
Ah, so the event is caused. It's just caused by something we can't see, yet are willing to call "free will." This undefined term has an effect on the physical world, even though we can't see it.

Nope, sorry, still don't understand.

I think you are deliberately "misunderstanding" me. You have now four times tried to claim that the initial failure of Wiseman to replicate Schlitz is all that matters - even though I have four times reminded you that we are talking about a situation where the experiment was done in parallel and the results of that parallel experiment was consistent. Oddly enough, in your replies you never mention this second bit of the argument. You just keep repeating your claim about the first bit, as if the second bit doesn't make any difference to what I mean by "replicate"
I certainly did mention it. I said "You're not distinguishing between (a) the failure of Wiseman to replicate Schlitz; and (b) the ability to replicate that failure."

Now....are you going to respond for a fifth time by saying...."The problem is that Wiseman has failed to replicate Schlitz's results. That is a failure to replicate....." as if you were unable to comprehend me because I was writing to you in some alien language like Swahili?
See above.

Yes. It means that the beliefs and attitudes of the person carrying out the experiment, at the time they carry out the experiment, can influence the result of the experiment. And yes, this does offer an explanation as to why people who to looking for PSI effects often get small statistical positives and people who set about trying to demonstrate it doesn't exist get nothing. As I said two days ago: it means the mechanism is "slippery". It means it won't surrender to science.
It also explains any and all other differences in the results of psi experiments. Therefore it explains nothing.

No, Paul, it is you who doesn't seem to be able to tell the difference between these things. The failure of wiseman to replicate Schlitz (a) makes the results regarding remote staring ambiguous/unreliable. The ability to replicate that failure (b) at the same time as Schlitz replicated HER success tells us that there may well be such a thing as the experimenter effect.
Aaaaarrrgh! Of course there is an experimenter effect. Who's denying this?

We have a replication of the experimenter effect. We only have an ambiguous/uncertain replication of the remote staring effect. Have we got that straight now?
Nope. We have a replication of the experimenter effect involving pairs of experiments, one of which found results (barely, at p=.05) and the other of which failed to replicate the results.

Ah, right. So after all this you decide to go back and claim that the experiments were'n't identical??? Isn't it a bit late in the day to completely change your argument?
Sweet Jesus. Where did I state that I thought the experiments were identical? I think they were different and that's why Wiseman didn't replicate Schlitz. But that is just my opinion, since I do not know how they were different.

What do Schlitz and Wiseman claim was different? As far as I was aware they made every possible effort to make sure they were the same.
I didn't say they claimed they were different, I said that they don't believe they were the same. If they completely believed the experiments were identical, they wouldn't continue to search for the difference.

It makes them totally irrelevant to this discussion unless we happened to be talking about the evidence for remote statring. But we aren't, are we? We are talking about the experimenter effect!
Which is defined, in this case, to be a failure to replicate. I think, therefore, that the failure to replicate is relevant.

To me, that looks like progress. And if you were genuinely interested in finding out the truth about this then I think it ought to look like progress to you also. So why do you keep making out it's a waste of time?
Read what I say, for crying out loud. I said that if what you suggest here is true, then they are wasting their time:
NO. It is proof that science cannot resolve the question AT ALL. There is only one way to know for sure that PSI exists, and that is to experience it yourself. But there is NO way to know for sure that it doesn't exist, and neither will there ever be.
Why the hell are they bothering if science cannot resolve the question at all?

~~ Paul
 
Paul

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Geoff said:
Well, fairly obviously, in this case "free will" is something which influences the outcome of what look like acausal events. Again, I'm not sure why you are having so much difficulty understanding this. It looks uncaused from the POV of physics but in truth there are no acausal events, only a form of causality that lies outide the realm of physics. i.e. Something like what has been called "karma".
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Ah, so the event is caused. It's just caused by something we can't see, yet are willing to call "free will." This undefined term has an effect on the physical world, even though we can't see it.

That is correct. What else could free will mean? Yeah, I know there is something called compatibilism.....

Nope, sorry, still don't understand.

:shrugs:

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I think you are deliberately "misunderstanding" me. You have now four times tried to claim that the initial failure of Wiseman to replicate Schlitz is all that matters - even though I have four times reminded you that we are talking about a situation where the experiment was done in parallel and the results of that parallel experiment was consistent. Oddly enough, in your replies you never mention this second bit of the argument. You just keep repeating your claim about the first bit, as if the second bit doesn't make any difference to what I mean by "replicate"
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I certainly did mention it. I said "You're not distinguishing between (a) the failure of Wiseman to replicate Schlitz; and (b) the ability to replicate that failure."


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Now....are you going to respond for a fifth time by saying...."The problem is that Wiseman has failed to replicate Schlitz's results. That is a failure to replicate....." as if you were unable to comprehend me because I was writing to you in some alien language like Swahili?
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See above.

This is silly. See WHAT above? :(

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Yes. It means that the beliefs and attitudes of the person carrying out the experiment, at the time they carry out the experiment, can influence the result of the experiment. And yes, this does offer an explanation as to why people who to looking for PSI effects often get small statistical positives and people who set about trying to demonstrate it doesn't exist get nothing. As I said two days ago: it means the mechanism is "slippery". It means it won't surrender to science.
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It also explains any and all other differences in the results of psi experiments. Therefore it explains nothing.

You mean that you don't like the explanation.

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No, Paul, it is you who doesn't seem to be able to tell the difference between these things. The failure of wiseman to replicate Schlitz (a) makes the results regarding remote staring ambiguous/unreliable. The ability to replicate that failure (b) at the same time as Schlitz replicated HER success tells us that there may well be such a thing as the experimenter effect.
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Aaaaarrrgh! Of course there is an experimenter effect. Who's denying this?

You didn't "deny" it. You just kept on talking about the failure to replicate the remote staring effect as if the experimenter effect wasn't a replication in it's own right.

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We have a replication of the experimenter effect. We only have an ambiguous/uncertain replication of the remote staring effect. Have we got that straight now?
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Nope. We have a replication of the experimenter effect involving pairs of experiments, one of which found results (barely, at p=.05) and the other of which failed to replicate the results.

The statistical result would have been accepted in a less contoversial area. This was an important part of the New Scientist article on the subject.

So what haven't we got straight, Paul?

It's amazing how skeptics will deny evidence they don't like.

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Ah, right. So after all this you decide to go back and claim that the experiments were'n't identical??? Isn't it a bit late in the day to completely change your argument?
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Sweet Jesus. Where did I state that I thought the experiments were identical? I think they were different and that's why Wiseman didn't replicate Schlitz. But that is just my opinion, since I do not know how they were different.

Classic! :D

Yes, this is exactly the problem. The skeptic's response is "there must have been a difference." Even though they can't actually explain what the difference is! This amounts to an outright denial of the result of the experiment on NO GROUNDS apart from the inability to accept that the result is what it appears to be.

That is exactly why this result is important, exactly why I said I like it and exactly why skeptics are rightly accused of double standards. Your reasoning is as follows:

1) PSI doesn't exist
2) The result looks like PSI
3) Therefore, something unknown must have gone wrong. But it isn't PSI.

If that isn't putting the cart before the horse, I don't know what is.


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What do Schlitz and Wiseman claim was different? As far as I was aware they made every possible effort to make sure they were the same.
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I didn't say they claimed they were different, I said that they don't believe they were the same. If they completely believed the experiments were identical, they wouldn't continue to search for the difference.

Clutching at straws.

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It makes them totally irrelevant to this discussion unless we happened to be talking about the evidence for remote statring. But we aren't, are we? We are talking about the experimenter effect!
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Which is defined, in this case, to be a failure to replicate. I think, therefore, that the failure to replicate is relevant.

Another attempt to highlight the failure of Wiseman to replicate Schlitz after we have already established why this irrelevant.

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To me, that looks like progress. And if you were genuinely interested in finding out the truth about this then I think it ought to look like progress to you also. So why do you keep making out it's a waste of time?
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Read what I say, for crying out loud. I said that if what you suggest here is true, then they are wasting their time:

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NO. It is proof that science cannot resolve the question AT ALL. There is only one way to know for sure that PSI exists, and that is to experience it yourself. But there is NO way to know for sure that it doesn't exist, and neither will there ever be.
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Why the hell are they bothering if science cannot resolve the question at all?

Because they are proving that the whole basis by which Randi thinks he is proving the non-existence of PSI by offering a million dollars for anyone who can prove it in the lab by HIS standards with HIM in control of the experiments is flawed in principle. Because it throws light on the true nature of PSI phenomena as the "slippery" things they are. BECAUSE, if they are correct, then METAPHYSICS matters after all. BECAUSE, it makes a mockery of people whose definitions of "facts" and "reality" are scientistic. 101 reasons, Paul. All of them run against the current of Randi, scientism, anti-metaphysics, denial of subjective evidence and all of the themes which have run through this thread from start to finish.

If they achieve in demonstrating that science can NEVER either prove nor disprove PSI then they have demonstrated something very important indeed. Something about PSI phenomena which has been claimed for years and always denied by the skeptics as somehow "against the rules". That is why.


This discussion is getting rather pointless. I hope that anyone lurking in this thread has understood what I am saying. If they don't, there is nothing more I can add to this post. Perhaps you'd like to sum up your own final comments. I don't expect to add any more of my own.
 
JustGeoff said:
Because they are proving that the whole basis by which Randi thinks he is proving the non-existence of PSI by offering a million dollars for anyone who can prove it in the lab by HIS standards with HIM in control of the experiments is flawed in principle.

Look, whatever the phenomenom under investigation is it must be the kind of thing you can win the million with, because it was detected under experimental conditions. If it couldn't be detected under experimental conditions the experiment would not have detected it in the first place.

I am sure I could win the million if my superpower was "Make people more likely to turn around when stared at, by believing that they will do so" and it worked reliably enough to detect with an experiment.

Because it throws light on the true nature of PSI phenomena as the "slippery" things they are. BECAUSE, if they are correct, then METAPHYSICS matters after all. BECAUSE, it makes a mockery of people whose definitions of "facts" and "reality" are scientistic. 101 reasons, Paul. All of them run against the current of Randi, scientism, anti-metaphysics, denial of subjective evidence and all of the themes which have run through this thread from start to finish.

I think it is a bit early to assume you have something, though.

Suppose I have two papers to show you. In the first a chemical which showed promise as an anti-inflammatory in animals, of a family of chemicals known to be medically useful in humans, is shown to correlate with better outcomes for arthritis sufferers with a confidence of 95%. In the second, it is shown that pinning polaroids of arthritis sufferers to a log and throwing rotten tomatoes at the photographs while yelling "Get better you gimps!" also correlates with better outcomes with a confidence of 95%.

Are you going to believe that the two studies are equally likely to be replicated? I am not. I think the second study is highly likely to be a fluke, because the hypothesis they are testing is really implausible. It would take a string of independant studies getting the same result to make me think, hey, maybe this rotten tomato log therapy works and we should try to figure out how on earth it does so.

You're at the stage of having an interesting result, but it's such a wacky hypothesis that it needs more evidence yet before it's rational to consider the case closed.

If they achieve in demonstrating that science can NEVER either prove nor disprove PSI then they have demonstrated something very important indeed. Something about PSI phenomena which has been claimed for years and always denied by the skeptics as somehow "against the rules". That is why.

Are you actually claiming that you could show by means of a scientific experiment that science can never prove or disprove the existence of something-in-particular? How would that work?
 
Kevin_Lowe said:
Actually I have the notion that you have made no progress towards showing reason to believe that experience is not perfectly susceptible to scientific study, just like any other set of atoms going about their business.

The reason in fairly simple. Science deals with descriptions that are entailed by quantitative logical relationships. Since experience (for example blueness) is not amenable to such description, science cannot conceivably give an explanation of blueness in terms of physical relationships.


You have to give us reason to think that this is impossible before you are entitled to use arguments that assume it to be impossible.

In order to understand that it is impossible, you first have to realise the non-quantitative, non-relational nature of qualitativeness, but this first step cannot be fully explained to you. This most fundamental step must be performed by yourself. For example, the experience we label as "blueness" is such a qualitative existence. It's nature does not exist as a set of relationships. In constrast, the nature of a "physical process" exists as a set of quantitative relationships between observations. There is no set of experiences that we label as "physical" that does not have quantitative relationships. So once you have realised that any qualitative experience is not a quantitatively related set of experiences you can easily understand that a description of logical relationships cannot conceivably offer an explanation of qualitativeness because logical relationships can only explain something that itself is initially defined by logical relationships.


I did not miss the point. Brownness, blueness, pinkness, love, hate, ennui, the sensation of a kick in the backside, yes, I think it highly likely that they are all a matter of atoms going about their business. Your intuitions otherwise are contradicted by the available evidence.

You may think that all these qualitative experiences are explainable by atoms going about their business, but suffice to say that nobody has given the slightest conceivable way that this is possible. Sure, some philosophers claim that its possible but their arguments do not hold up. Essentially, such arguments are a denail of the existence of qualitative aspects of experience. Live a life of denail if you wish. In addition, the only type of evidence you speak of is evidence that certain sets of quantitatively related observations co-vary in some way with qualitative experience. This does not add up to an explanation of qualitativeness in terms of physical relationships I'm afraid.


Because you claim to know it immediately, rather than via logic or experience.

Via logic or experience? I think you mean just via logic! And of course I do not claim to know about qualitativeness through logic because that would be in complete contradiction to the non-relational nature of qualitativeness. So you swap the word "intuition" for "experience". Your point being?


I think it rather more likely that you are playing the same game Ian plays, which is to illegitmately bolt a ridiculous claim ("blue is a spooky immaterial thing") to a much stronger claim ("we both see blue") and call this bolting-on "how we define blue". It is, obviously enough, not how I define blue and it is in no way entailed by the fact that we both can see blue. So if that's the road you plan to go down, knock it off now. Or come up with a better argument to justify bolting spooky properties on to sense impressions which can be explained perfectly well as atoms in the brain doing their thing.


The fact that we both see blue is not my central argument. It is the qualitative nature of blue that I am trying to point out to you. This nature cannot be described to you by any other person. That's why I asked if you also see blue in order to focus this debate on an obvious and specific qualitativeness.
 
Stimpson J. Cat said:


If there where properties of consciousness which you are aware of, but which don't affect your brain or behavior in any way, then there would be stuff which you are aware of, but which you cannot act on.

For example, let's imagine that the experience 'A' has different non-physical properties than experience 'B'. I then ask you "did those two experiences have different non-physical properties?". How would you answer?

If you are actually capable of honestly answering "yes", then clearly those supposedly non-physical properties have had some affect on your brain. Without any such effects, the truth of the fact that they had different non-physical properties could not possibly have influenced your behavior of saying that they do.

Why does blueness have to have an effect on my brain in order for me to say something about it? I think this is the assumption you are making that is not necessarily true. And if it isn't true then your argument doesn't carry any weight.


You would end up with the quite ridiculous situation of knowing that they have different non-physical properties, but nevertheless finding that your body responds that you do not!

And let's face it, this simply isn't what happens. For example, here you and Ian are going on and on about how you know your consciousness has these non-physical properties, but even if that where true, your bodies would not be talking about it.

Only if you assume that non-physical existence must affect my brain in order for me to refer to it. But that would mean that you have re-defined non-physical existence as physical. Would you accept that your assumption may be wrong?
 
Stimpson J. Cat said:
To put it formally:

Premise 1: Consciousness has some non-physical property 'x'.
Premise 2: All properties of your consciousness are properties which you are aware of.
Premise 3: All properties of consciousness which you are aware of affect your brain in some way.

Conclusion 1: Property 'x' does not affect your brain in any way. This follows directly from the fact that it is non-physical.
Conclusion 2: You are not aware that your consciousness has property 'x'. This follows directly from conclusion 1 and premise 3.
Conclusion 3: Your consciousness does not have property 'x'. This follows directly from conclusion 2 and premise 2.

Conclusion 3 contradicts premise 1. Therefore those three premises cannot all be true. Either your consciousness does not have any non-physical properties, or your consciousness has properties which you are not aware of, or your consciousness has properties which you are aware of, but which cannot possibly have any effect on your brain activity (or behavior) in any way at all.

Which are you claiming is the case? So far, you seem to have agreed with all three premises. This is self-contradictory.

To put it formally in my own words. My own comments are in blue:

Premise 1: Consciousness is non-physical
Premise 2: One is directly aware of ones own consciousness
Premise 3: Ones direct awareness of ones consciousness necessarily affects the brain.

Conclusion 1: Consciousness does not affect your brain in any way. This follows directly from the fact that it is non-physical.

Of course people should be aware that I do say consciousness is causally efficacious. But what Dr Cat is saying here is that from my definition of consciousness (subjective qualitative feelings) the causal power of consciousness is not consciousness itself. And this is precisely what we're considering; namely consciousness itself in abstraction from any causal powers it has.

In other words we have the trivial claim:

Consciousness shorn of its causal powers does not have any causal powers!


Conclusion 2: You are not aware that you are conscious. This follows directly from conclusion 1 and premise 3.

Conclusion 3:
Therefore since we are aware that we are conscious, it must be physical.


I confess I originally misunderstood Dr Cat. Although an utterly bizarre argument, it is certainly much more interesting than I originally thought.

So let's consider the general case. We have X which has causal powers. But Dr Cat is saying lets abstract X from its causal powers i.e consider each separately.

We are then left with the rather trivial claim that X considered in abstraction from its causal powers does not have any causal powers. But if something has no causal powers whatsoever, then how can we ever know of its existence?? Thus we have absolutely no reason to suppose X exists. Therefore only X's causal powers exist. Except that since X does not exist we only have certain physical processes in the world which could be designated "X" -- and of course "X" is then quite different from X.

The same goes for consciousness. First of all abstract consciousness from its causal powers. Thus consciousness in abstraction from its causal powers has no causal powers. Therefore, since it is unable to affect the world, we can never know of its existence. Thus only the causal powers of consciousness exist; or in other words only certain physical processes in the world exist -- namely our behaviour (there is nothing called consciousness which causes behaviour).

In other words Dr Cat is arguing that we are p-zombies :eek: (unconscious automatons).

But since we know absolutely that we are conscious (i.e we cannot possibly be in error in this), we have a paradox. At least either that or Dr Cat's argument is in error.

There are 2 mistakes as I see it. The 2nd one being conclusive.

First of all it might ring mighty strange to people to conclude X has no causal powers by considering it in abstraction from its causal powers in the first place!. :eek:

But lets leave aside this objection. Dr Cat is saying we only know of our consciousness through its causal powers. But as I have repeated stated, non-materialists reject this thesis. When we say we know we are conscious, we are not saying that consciousness causes some other process whereby we come to know it. No, we are saying that our recognition of our our consciousness is unmediated. In other words there is no causal relationship between the fact of my consciousness and me knowing it. The fact that I might say I know I am conscious does not mean I could not logically know it without saying it. Indeed it does not mean that I could not know it without any brain activity whatsoever. Of course it may be nomonologically necessary that there will be brain activity whenever I think anything at all, but since my position is that the appropriate brain activity follows consciousness, rather than vice versa, then Dr Cat's argument doesn't hold.

I have repeated stated this time after time to Dr Cat, but he takes no notice of me.

BTW I believe that Dr Cat's argument does work against epiphenomenalism (because consciousness follows brain activity and we then have a causal gap because my knowledge of my consciousness therefore also follows the appropriate brain activity. This is not so for my position where the brain activity follows my knowledge of my consciousness). Indeed I have independent argued for this in a similar, albeit in a more coherent, manner. Since any materialists who believe in the existence of consciousness must necessarily have their position collapse to epiphenomenalism, then rather than Dr Cat's argument disproving non-materialism it disproves the precise opposite; namely it disproves any materialist position which acknowledges the existence of consciousness!! :eek:




 
Geoff said:
That is correct. What else could free will mean? Yeah, I know there is something called compatibilism....
As far as I can tell, libertarian free will is entirely undefined. No one can tell me how I make decisions under free will, if it is not by a combination of deterministic and random events. To say that free will causes physical events whose cause is undetectable does not tell me how the free decision was made in the first place.

You mean that you don't like the explanation.
No, I mean that the experimenter effect is a circular concept. It is usually defined to mean "one experimenter got result A and another experiment got result ~A, under the same protocol." Then we ask why two different results were obtained and the answer is "the experimenter effect." We have learned nothing. And if the experimenter effect is broadened to include any differences between experimenters under the same protocol, then it can explain the entire procedure. We don't even need psi ability on the part of the subjects.

You didn't "deny" it. You just kept on talking about the failure to replicate the remote staring effect as if the experimenter effect wasn't a replication in it's own right.
It is a replication in its own right, but that doesn't deny that it is a replication of two experiments, one of which is a failure to replicate the other. If Schlitz and Wiseman can continue to replicate the pairs of experiments, they have a golden opportunity to slowly remove their influences from the experiments until the results are identical, and thus discover what the experimenter effect is due to, at least in this case. They know this. I believe they are trying to do just that.

The statistical result would have been accepted in a less contoversial area. This was an important part of the New Scientist article on the subject.
I accept the statistical result. What it means is entirely another question.

So what haven't we got straight, Paul?

It's amazing how skeptics will deny evidence they don't like.
I think we have it straight. I just won't jump to the conclusion you do.

Yes, this is exactly the problem. The skeptic's response is "there must have been a difference." Even though they can't actually explain what the difference is! This amounts to an outright denial of the result of the experiment on NO GROUNDS apart from the inability to accept that the result is what it appears to be.
Explain to me exactly what the result of the experiment is.

1) PSI doesn't exist
2) The result looks like PSI
3) Therefore, something unknown must have gone wrong. But it isn't PSI.

If that isn't putting the cart before the horse, I don't know what is.
That is not my reasoning. My reasoning is this:

1) Psi is defined as a rejection of a null hypothesis concerning the statistical outcome of an experiment.
2) The null hypothesis was rejected.
3) Therefore, a statistical anomaly occured.

What I won't do is jump to the conclusion that this means a transfer of information occured not using the known senses.

Another attempt to highlight the failure of Wiseman to replicate Schlitz after we have already established why this irrelevant.
So the experiment is not about the difference between the results of Schlitz and Wiseman?

Because they are proving that the whole basis by which Randi thinks he is proving the non-existence of PSI by offering a million dollars for anyone who can prove it in the lab by HIS standards with HIM in control of the experiments is flawed in principle. Because it throws light on the true nature of PSI phenomena as the "slippery" things they are. BECAUSE, if they are correct, then METAPHYSICS matters after all. BECAUSE, it makes a mockery of people whose definitions of "facts" and "reality" are scientistic. 101 reasons, Paul. All of them run against the current of Randi, scientism, anti-metaphysics, denial of subjective evidence and all of the themes which have run through this thread from start to finish.

If they achieve in demonstrating that science can NEVER either prove nor disprove PSI then they have demonstrated something very important indeed. Something about PSI phenomena which has been claimed for years and always denied by the skeptics as somehow "against the rules". That is why. [red color removed]
If what you say is correct, then scientific experiments cannot demonstrate it. Their experiments are invalid and they are wasting their time. Therefore they are not proving what you say they are.

~~ Paul
 
davidsmith73 said:
The reason in fairly simple. Science deals with descriptions that are entailed by quantitative logical relationships. Since experience (for example blueness) is not amenable to such description, science cannot conceivably give an explanation of blueness in terms of physical relationships.

Why not?

As I see it, you can't rule out the possibility that blueness is a certain kind of behaviour in the atoms that make up our brain. We don't know yet whether this is the case, but it's what fits with the rest of what we know about the universe and it certainly has not been disproven.

After all, if blueness can be some kind of goings-on in an immaterial mind-thingy, why can't it equally well be some kind of goings-on in a material mind-thingy?

In order to understand that it is impossible, you first have to realise the non-quantitative, non-relational nature of qualitativeness, but this first step cannot be fully explained to you. This most fundamental step must be performed by yourself. For example, the experience we label as "blueness" is such a qualitative existence. It's nature does not exist as a set of relationships.

Except for the way we can reliably induce it by looking at blue things, you mean? That's a relationship. I am sure you will find some way of hand-waving that away though, as not being enough of a relationship, even though it looks clear cut to me.

In constrast, the nature of a "physical process" exists as a set of quantitative relationships between observations. There is no set of experiences that we label as "physical" that does not have quantitative relationships. So once you have realised that any qualitative experience is not a quantitatively related set of experiences you can easily understand that a description of logical relationships cannot conceivably offer an explanation of qualitativeness because logical relationships can only explain something that itself is initially defined by logical relationships.

Says who? What you call a qualitative experience might well be just our imperfect perception of quantitative events.

You may think that all these qualitative experiences are explainable by atoms going about their business, but suffice to say that nobody has given the slightest conceivable way that this is possible.

That's an empty statement. Nobody has ever given the slightest conceivable way for motion to occur or for time to pass either. All we can know as of now is that they do. Any attempt to "give a way" to such things is empty metaphysical noise.

Immaterialism is in no better state. All you can do to "explain" such things in immaterialist terms is to make up ad hoc properties of immaterial stuff to do the work, and I can do exactly the same for a non-immaterialist position if I want to waste my time.

Can you prove that blueness is not just squiggle-rays interacting with our foofle bosons? (I can't make you realise that this proposition makes sense fully, however. You have to realise this yourself).

Sure, some philosophers claim that its possible but their arguments do not hold up. Essentially, such arguments are a denail of the existence of qualitative aspects of experience. Live a life of denail if you wish.

Some philosophers claim that it's impossible for blueness to be squiggle-rays undertickling arrays of foofle bosons, but I baldly assert that their arguments to not hold up. Essentially, such arguments are a denial of the existence of physical reality itself. Live a life of denial if you wish. :rolleyes:

Via logic or experience? I think you mean just via logic! And of course I do not claim to know about qualitativeness through logic because that would be in complete contradiction to the non-relational nature of qualitativeness. So you swap the word "intuition" for "experience". Your point being?

I have no idea where you think you are going with this.

The fact that we both see blue is not my central argument. It is the qualitative nature of blue that I am trying to point out to you. This nature cannot be described to you by any other person. That's why I asked if you also see blue in order to focus this debate on an obvious and specific qualitativeness.

Okay. One last time. You are helping yourself to the premise that "qualitative" implies spooky immaterial properties. You simply do not know whether or not this is the case and you have no coherent argument for this being the case. Until you have evidence or argument for the premise that "qualitative" implies "immaterial", as opposed to "something we do not yet fully understand", then you are not entitled to sneak that premise back into every single post you make as if it was established truth.
 

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