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Split Thread Language and labels - paedophile or child-molester

No, that is completely false, mainly because pedophilia is a preference. Like I prefer spaghetti to a sandwich but will eat sandwiches anyway.



I'm sorry but you are utterly ignorant of this matter. Plenty of gay people have had relationships with the opposite sex, for instance, and plenty of straight people have experimented.



Not an idiot. Just ignorant of the facts.
They are called bisexuals.

Who can get it up for either ADULT gender
 
They are called bisexuals.

Who can get it up for either ADULT gender

NO. Bisexuals are people who have no preference for either same-sex or opposite-sex relations. Heterosexuals can experiment, too. Again, cullennz, you display a total ignorance of this subject, and rather than seek to learn, you proudly continue to wallow in it.
 
NO. Bisexuals are people who have no preference for either same-sex or opposite-sex relations. Heterosexuals can experiment, too. Again, cullennz, you display a total ignorance of this subject, and rather than seek to learn, you proudly continue to wallow in it.
I know no hetreo who has experimented with dudes.

But know bi sexual friends.

The clue is in the name
 
No, just no.

You're the king of convincing arguments, mijo. Here's the actual definition:

bi·sex·u·al
ˌbīˈsekSH(əw)əl/
adjective
1.
sexually attracted to both men and women.noun
1.
a person who is sexually attracted to both men and women.

How is that not what I said?

If you're only attracted to men and you have sex with a woman one time to try it out or for some other reason (social pressure, etc.) that doesn't make you bisexual, as you need to be attracted to both.
 
Meanwhile back on topic.

The majority of people know the difference between a pedo and a kiddy fiddler.

They just don't care enough to worry about their feelings.

Well apart from a few posters on here
 
It's simple: pedophiles may or may not be 'kiddie-fiddlers'. 'Kiddie fiddlers' may or may not be pedophiles. Most sexual abuse involving minors is not about the sexual drive or attraction; just like most rapes, it is most often about about power and control.

One is a thought; the other is an assault. If you can't tell the difference between a thought and an assault, you should seek professional help.

Using the wrong terms confuses the issue, and delays any possibility of helping to correct the problem. "Pedophile is the same thing as child-molester" is exactly as wrong as saying "Man is the same thing as rapist".

This post was about 7 or 8 into the entire thread, and should have been the end of discussion, because there is no more to it.

Pretty neat that the discussion's ongoing a dozen pages later.
 
This post was about 7 or 8 into the entire thread, and should have been the end of discussion, because there is no more to it.

Pretty neat that the discussion's ongoing a dozen pages later.
It is right on the mark.

The difference is a lot of people like me don't care when others get it wrong.

On my personal scale of things that worry me.

Pedos feelings being hurt by being wrongly accused of being a kiddy fiddler is around 2/10.

The 2 is for their obvious situation they are stuck in.

As a comparison

My personal scale for a little dude realising he is gay and the issues is about 8/10.

What can I say?

I'm a hypocrite. But I know I am.

And that's just the way it is
 
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You're the king of convincing arguments, mijo. Here's the actual definition:



How is that not what I said?

If you're only attracted to men and you have sex with a woman one time to try it out or for some other reason (social pressure, etc.) that doesn't make you bisexual, as you need to be attracted to both.

"Preference for both"≠"no preference between the two"
 
Meanwhile back on topic.

The majority of people know the difference between a pedo and a kiddy fiddler.

They just don't care enough to worry about their feelings.

Well apart from a few posters on here

Absolutely! Just like most people know of the difference between someone who is a murderer and someone who fantasizes about it. They just don't care enough to worry about their feelings, and just treat both of them the same.
 
"Preference for both"≠"no preference between the two"

Really? The way you worded it? I'd like you to explain that.

Also, you're being pedantic, but instead of being constructively pedantic, like simply making a clarification if you felt my post was inaccurate, you, as usual, simply went for the confrontation.
 
Absolutely! Just like most people know of the difference between someone who is a murderer and someone who fantasizes about it. They just don't care enough to worry about their feelings, and just treat both of them the same.
Nope.

I care more about false murder

Again

I'm probably a prick
 
Then you're not being rational, as you're applying different standards to two similar situations: fantasy vs reality, conflated.
Yes

When it comes to worrying about it.

Never said it was totally rational.

But only one scenario could potentially involve the rape of a kid.

Again

Just a personal opinion
 
Really? The way you worded it? I'd like you to explain that.

Also, you're being pedantic, but instead of being constructively pedantic, like simply making a clarification if you felt my post was inaccurate, you, as usual, simply went for the confrontation.

:rolleyes:

One can be sexually attracted to both men and women yet prefer one over the other. Therefore, one can be bisexual and not have equal preference for men and women. It's neither pedantic nor hard to understand.
 
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