As far as similarity goes... As you mentioned, the book creates 9 clusters. You also quoted two anthropologists who had 5 and 8 "races". That really shouldn't happen if there is an underlying, detectable biological reality to the term.
That would only be the case if there were only supposed to have been 1 separating event in human history, upon which we were immediately split directly into some number of smaller units which could not themselves have split later. It would not be the case if humans were supposed to work
just the same as every other animal, in which case one split could be followed by other splits within any of the smaller units created by the earlier one. Sequential divergences yield nested hierarchies, and nested hierarchies show different numbers of members just depending on the level/resolution at which you look at them. For example, the "gray wolf" splits first into northern and southern (2 groups), then the northern splits into Eurasian and North American (at least 3 groups total), then the North American splits into arctic and subarctic (more than 4 total), and even among the subarctic North American, there are eastern and western groups which still include more smaller units within themselves. It's not a matter of any particular number being the final absolute answer and other numbers being wrong; it's just a matter of scale. (This is part of the problem with the idea of "subspecies"; it's only one word, so it would seem like it should apply to only one level, but sometimes there's more than one level below species.)
By that definition the population of any city, town or village of any age is its own race. You can use the word in that sense if you like. I just don't think that's how it's commonly understood.
Same basic idea, different scales. "Tribe" and "clan" are also comparable. So what? We have different words for the same general phenomenon at different scales... and this is somehow a problem... for one out of several such words but not the others... because...?
Which word is invalid, or indicates something that doesn't exist, or whatever: "computer", "tablet", "cellphone", "smartphone", or "supercomputer"?
Which word is invalid, or indicates something that doesn't exist, or whatever: "tree" or "shrub"?
Which word is invalid, or indicates something that doesn't exist, or whatever: "twig" or "branch"?
Which word is invalid, or indicates something that doesn't exist, or whatever: "nation", "state", "confederation", "union", "county", or even "city" or "municipality"?
Which word is invalid, or indicates something that doesn't exist, or whatever: "shoe" or "boot"?
Which word is invalid, or indicates something that doesn't exist, or whatever: "sword" or "knife"?
Which word is invalid, or indicates something that doesn't exist, or whatever: "horse" or "pony"?
Which word is invalid, or indicates something that doesn't exist, or whatever: "lightning" or "spark"?
There is no clinal variation between dog races.
I've known some mutts who would disagree with you. And even without that, if breeders had always managed to make sure there was absolutely no introgression and there were no such things as "village dogs" (dogs in areas where breeding didn't take off like it did in Europe, representing a more general, un-tinkered-with state of dog), what difference would it make? Even thoroughly isolated, discontinuous groups in a species would still just be points along a greadient where the segment between them was missing for one reason or another. If you started with a fully expressed gradient from end to end and drove a middle section extinct, that wouldn't change the fundamental relationship between the remainders.
The race denial case doesn't need "small". It needs "zero". Otherwise, the case they're defending isn't "no such thing as races", but merely "races do exist (but make relatively little difference)", which I have not argued against.
It would have been good if you had mentioned that earlier
I don't believe it was necessary to notify you that the evidence for your own claim that something doesn't exist would need to indicate that it... doesn't exist.
I find your line of argumentation unconvincing. "
Anything that's merely ascribed to or affiliated with or attached to something is not a part of its definition."

This is a nonsensical assertion, insofar as the meaning of a word is defined by its usage, including attributes ascribed to it by speakers.
Define "truck". Now describe a particular truck. Now notice that none of what you said to describe any particular truck is part of the definition of "truck". (In fact, they're all things that
don't apply to all trucks, which a definition would need to! That's how completely separate definition and description are.)
People routinely give all kinds of descriptions of other groups of people, places, objects, and so on, which don't define those things. To just stick with people: people say children are loud, men are arrogant, old people are forgetful, women are cooperative, rich people are lazy, poor people are lazy... we all know that the
definitions of "child", "man", "old person", "woman", "rich person", and "poor person" don't include loudness, arrogance, forgetfulness, cooperativity, or laziness. These groups are defined by age, sex, and wealth, nothing else. Those other traits just get
ascribed to them.
Here you're foisting yourself by your own petard. You're correlating behavior ("acting black" and "acting white") with that which you elsewhere steadfastly insist is purely physiological, purely genetic. This is my precise point; are you unaware that you're supporting my position in this?
Anything that's an "act" isn't who/what you really are. It's just an act.
Lee, Sandra SJ; Mountain, Joanna; Koenig, Barbara; Altman, Russ (2008). "The ethics of characterizing difference: guiding principles on using racial categories in human genetics". Genome Biol. 9 (7): 404. doi:10.1186/gb-2008-9-7-404. PMC 2530857. PMID 18638359. Excerpt: "We caution against making the naive leap to a genetic explanation for group differences in complex traits, especially for human behavioral traits such as IQ scores"
Not even
on the subject of races' existence
AAA (1998-05-17). "American Anthropological Association Statement on "Race"". Aaanet.org. Excerpt: "Evidence from the analysis of genetics (e.g., DNA) indicates that most physical variation, about 94%, lies within so-called racial groups. Conventional geographic 'racial' groupings differ from one another only in about 6% of their genes. This means that there is greater variation within 'racial' groups than between them."
Making my case for me: they differ, which is the opposite of not differing
Harrison, Guy (2010). Race and Reality. Amherst: Prometheus Books. Excerpt: "Race is a poor empirical description of the patterns of difference that we encounter within our species. The billions of humans alive today simply do not fit into neat and tidy biological boxes..."
"Neat tidy little boxes" = the straw man I illustrated as model X in the image I uploaded recently. Burning that poor guy has no effect on the actual claims made by actual people, such as model Z.
Roberts, Dorothy (2011). Fatal Invention. London, New York: The New Press. Excerpt: "The genetic differences that exist among populations are characterized by gradual changes across geographic regions, not sharp, categorical distinctions... There is no such thing as a set of genes that belongs exclusively to one group and not to another..."
"Sharpness" and "exclusivity" = the straw man I illustrated as model X in the image I uploaded recently. Burning that poor guy has no effect on the actual claims made by actual people, such as model Z.
"Modern human biological variation is not structured into phylogenetic subspecies ('races'), nor are the taxa of the standard anthropological 'racial' classifications breeding populations. The 'racial taxa' do not meet the phylogenetic criteria. 'Race' denotes socially constructed units as a function of the incorrect usage of the term." --
Source
What they're calling "incorrect" usage of the word is exactly what
you have insisted it means! (bringing in arbitrary cultural stuff instead of just biology)
Other interesting quotes from that page get wacky about how they handle word definitions. For example, it addresses the issue of inconsistent definitions of "race" but then makes delcarations like the one you quoted without first picking a definition. Without picking one, such a declaration can only make sense as a blanket over all of them: "whatever it is, it
has to be something that's not real, and anything that's real can't be it". That makes such declarations both false, for definitions that race non-deniers use which do fit reality (according to data they refer to in the very same page themselves),
and straw men, for definitions which non-deniers don't use. Either way, it's also starting at the desired end point.
They suggest what they find to be a good definition of "subspecies", which isn't the same word, but I'll copy what they did to it here just because because it's demonstrative and beause they brought it up suggesting that it's at least roughly equivalent:
Avise and Ball suggest a definition of 'subspecies' that is consistent with the goals of evolutionary taxonomy: "Subspecies are groups of actually or potentially interbreeding populations phylogenetically distinguishable from, but reproductively compatible with, other such groups. Importantly the evidence for phylogenetic distinction must normally come from the concordant distributions of multiple, independent, genetically based traits."
This definition is different from the previous one in that it emphasizes phylogenetics. It is, in theory, more objective and consistent with neodarwinian evolutionary theory and can be used as the basis for determining whether or not modern Homo sapiens can be structured into populations divergent enough to be called 'races'. We know that there is human geographical variation, but does this infraspecific diversity reach a threshold that merits the designation 'subspecies'
OK, now, aside from the fact that the evidence they called for at the end of the first paragraph there is exactly what I've already given here and they report themselves later, take a look at the bait-&-switch in the paragraph right after it: they almost immediately started talking about a "threshold" and "divergent
enough"! The definition they were just advocating right before that did not include any such magic line in the sand. Adding one on their own, in a question that treats the addition as if it had been there all along, is begging the question: trying to get us to accept the addition of an arbitrary, biologically meaningless "threshold" to count as "enough", just by acting as if we already had.
Also, while there are declarations like the one you quoted peppered throughout the page, there's a clear pattern about them: they're never associated with, or even located near, any specific data to point to as the
source of such conclusions. And whever they do report actual genetic data, not only is it not associated with equivalent conclusions about what it means, but the actual data also always fails to support those declarations and perfectly agrees with what I've been saying all along:
Anonymous human DNA samples will structure into groups that correspond to the divisions of the sampled populations or regions when large numbers of genetic markers are used. This has been demonstrated with autosomal microsatellites, which are the most rapidly evolving genetic variants. The DNA of an unknown individual from one of the sampled populations would probably be correctly linked to a population.
Notice the use of "structure" as a verb where the subject is "DNA samples"; it's something they do themselves, part of the reality of their distriubtion in the human population, not a fiction superimposed on them by people. Right after this quote, they did go back to the "level of differentiation" mantra, but they still never established any such level or a need for one or even that anybody anywhere had ever claimed one, nevermind any reason to think one could possibly be at all relevant when the issue is existence or non-existence.
Another example:
The within- to between-group variation is very high for genetic polymorphisms (85%). This means that individuals from one 'race' may be overall more similar to individuals in one of the other 'races' than to other individuals in the same 'race'. This observation is perhaps insufficient...
...of course, because there's no reason why it would/could be sufficient, which is why classification/grouping/whatever has never required otherwise in any other case...
...although it still is convincing because it illustrates the lack of a boundary. Coalescence times calculated from various genes suggest that the differentiation of modern humans began in Africa in populations whose morphological traits are unknown; it cannot be assumed from an evolutionary perspective that the traits used to define 'races' emerged simultaneously with this divergence.
"Boundaries" again... and then the thing about human populations not having developed all of their present traits immediately when they first started diverging from each other in Africa. Well
of course when they first diverged they hadn't yet developed all of the separate traits that they would end up with dozens of millennia later! Who in the world are they pretending to counter with such an
absurd straw man? But that's not even the worst part of this little tidbit. They also just admitted that human populations which came to populate different regions of the world did in fact diverge from each other... right in the same paper where they declared on several other occations that they didn't.
scientific consensus is against you
Not at all. What actually keeps happening with scientists or scientific papers brought up in situations like this is any one or more of a few options:
- The surce is being misrepresented and did not say what they say (s)he/it/they said
- The source did say it but not in any kind of research study or analysis or such, but just speaking personally outside of professional scolarly context
- The source has actual research, but it actually supports my case and negates that of the person who showed it to me (even if the way it's written looks like the behavior of authors who really didn't want it to)
* * *
There's more I wanted to add, but it will just need to wait...