Slowvehicle
Membership Drive , Co-Ordinator,, Russell's Antin
Then I assume that if the info below is true which someone posted earlier
"So archeologicaly it looks like two flooding events happened, one that formed the Persian Gulf, possibly about 10,000 years ago, and a later ..."
---it would not affect your belief in the flood story. The post by was posted on April 30 on this thread according to Google search but I can't find it.
It was also posted like this on another site:
As it happens, archeologicaly, we know that where the Persian Gulf is today was definately once an entirely dry basin (apart from several rivers that flowed through it that were connected to the Euphrates and Tigris river systems) about 15,000 years ago and that sometime after the last glaciation period ended, which was around 12,000 years ago, when the glaciers started melting and sea levels started to gradualy rise, it looks like some sort of natural dam once existed where the Straits of Hormuz are today which eventualy gave way, allowing the Arabian sea to suddenly spill over it creating the Persian Gulf as we see it today in a very short time.There's also evidence of relatively more recent extended local flooding in this part of the world. Excavations in Iraq have shown evidence of a flood at Shuruppak just under 5000 years ago.
http://www.ultimate-guitar.com/forum/archive/index.php?t-737277-p-56.html
DOC:
In what way are Cretaceous fossils at altitude in Peru significant to a Holocene flood in Mesopotamia?
In what way is a local flood in Mesopotamia the "global" flood that covered all the mountains to more than a cubit, and destroyed all life that was not in the ark? If the ark story is a fabrication loosley based on one or another of a series of local floods, how can you claim "accuracy" for anything contained in the OT, including the superstition that Moses "wrote" the Torah?