I just wrote the following, then realized I assumed the 1/32 rule was based on an official statement from Joseph Smith or Brigham Young, and thought it sounded odd. But upon re-reading, I see that that's not necessarily so. The 1/32 is from a website
about the church, and might have even been anecdotally referring to just one individual case, since it says "as little as."
So I'll let the following stand, but ask,
was there an official church statement about when the cut-off occurred or did it vary according to the individual situation and 1/32 was just the worst case anyone could find?
Heaven forbid this is one of those incorrect anti-Mormon facts that Janadele has been warning us about.
And is it reasonable that god sends bad (for lack of a better word) souls to those who have 1/32 but not 1/64?
1/32 sounds like an odd choice. That's longer than God usually punished people.
Some white dude shagged a slave--sin of the father
First generation 1/2
Second generation 1/4
Third generation 1/8
Fourth generation 1/16
Fifth generation 1/32
Sixth generation 1/64--he's clean.
That's harsher than the usual
"unto the third and fourth generation."
It's also a generation harsher than the complex period Jamaican levels of color, which went:
Black
Mulatto 1/2
Quadroon 1/4
Mustee 1/8
Mustafina 1/16
"After that they are white washed, and considered as European." From Capt. Marryat:
http://books.google.com/books?id=7688AAAAYAAJ&pg=PA70&output=html
Many other sources say that the mustafina was
considered white by law, so Capt. Marryat in the above source may mean that there's no more name, other than "white," for the offspring of a mustafina and a white, even though legal whiteness is conferred at 1/16.
I can find all kinds of non-Mormon references to the Curse of Ham, of course, and to the various shades of black and white in Jamaica, but none combining the two--it seems rare to have defined just when the Curse of Ham wore off, in the period.
In America, there didn't seem to be as rigid a color system. Children of slaves (edited to clarify, children of
female slaves) were always slaves no matter how white--I've seen accounts of red-headed slaves with freckles--while
free blacks who looked white enough could generally just pass as white if they wanted, though one-eighth was generally as much as counted to make them legally black.
So it seems odd that someone in the early 19th century, basing a cut-off generation either on cultural practices and a Biblical basis, would choose 1/32. Any idea where that came from?