Ughm...a question? How long has Hebrew been a written language? And did any of the Native American have any coherent writings when Columbus arrived?
Speaking specifically about the Aztecs, yes they had written language, but a whole bunch of that was destroyed after the Conquistadors. The Olmecs had hieroglyphic language 3,000 years ago, but I don't know if it was still around when Columbus arrived. Some aboriginal languages in Canada had writing and / or hieroglyphs. In today's USA, I'm unaware of any writing that pre-dates Columbus, but that could be my own ignorance.
The apologetics page that was linked above explains the failure of Hebrew (a written language for what, 5,000 years?) to survive the trip to North America thusly:
The FAIR Wiki said:
It is important to note that we may never find traces of Hebrew language among American languages for the simple fact that the Lehite’s mother tongue all-but-disappeared shortly after their arrival in the New World. When Moroni writes about reformed Egyptian, he also explains that the “Hebrew hath been altered by us also” (Mormon 9:33).
...
The most likely scenario is that the Lehites—who were a small incursion into a larger existing native populace—embraced the habits, culture, and language of their neighbors within a very short period after their arrival in the New World. This is what we generally find when a small group melds with a larger group. The smaller group usually takes on the traits of the larger (or, at least, the more powerful) group—not the other way around. It is not unusual, however, for at least some of the characteristics of the smaller group to show up in the larger group’s culture. Typically, however, the smaller group becomes part of the larger group with which they merge. Thus, the Lehites would have become Mesoamericans.
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Under such conditions, would there be any reason to expect that we’d find “Hebrew” among the Native Americans?
Yeah, it's not like Hebrews have historically made much efforts to keep their language while living among other cultures and language-speakers.
Dragonlady said:
I'm just asking...but it seems if Hebrews came to America, they would have brought that skill with them; and I think it follows they would have written quite a bit. I doubt they would have only written on one set of "golden tablets" considering the time and work involved; and written contracts and such would have been needed everyday? Has any such thing ever been found?
Well, you see that, by coincidence, the folks who emigrated weren't among the most literate:
In the Book of Mormon we infer that training and devotion were necessary to competently master their difficult writing system. King Benjamin, for example, “caused that [his princely sons] should be taught all the languages of his fathers, that thereby they might become men of understanding” (Mosiah 1:3). Moroni, who had mastered the art himself, lamented that the Lord had not made the Nephites “mighty in writing” (Ether 12:23).
But by the same token, they did have a priestly class that wrote:
The FAIR Wiki said:
We see, therefore, the necessity to teach the Old World language to a few elite in order to preserve, not only the traditions, but also to maintain a continuation of scribes who could read the writings of past generations.
...
King Benjamin, for example, “caused that [his princely sons] should be taught all the languages of his fathers, that thereby they might become men of understanding”
But, even those that were educated in this written, Old-World language, didn't leave any written evidence of it, anywhere, because ... they somehow immediately adapted their "Old World" written language with no vowels into nahuatl script.
The FAIR Wiki said:
Even with such instruction, however, the script was most likely an altered form of Egyptian—perhaps adapted to Mesoamerican scripts—and altered according to their language. This suggests that ideas and motifs that originated in the Old World were adapted to a script that could be conveyed with New World motifs, or at least New World glyphs.
So, in summary, you wouldn't expect to find any written language from the Middle East in the Americas. Except, this being religious apologetics, that we do see it!
The FAIR Wiki said:
Perhaps the most surprising of all Eurasian-American linguistic connections, at least in geographic terms, is that proposed by Brian Stubbs: a strong link between the Uto-Aztecan and Afro-Asiatic (or Hamito-Semitic) languages. The Uto-Aztecan languages are, or have been, spoken in western North America from Idaho to El Salvador. One would expect that, if Semites or their linguistic kinsmen from northern Africa were to reach the New World by water, their route would be trans-Atlantic. Indeed, what graphonomic evidence there is indicates exactly that: Canaanite inscriptions are found in Georgia and Tennessee as well as in Brazil; and Mediterranean coins, some Hebrew and Moroccan Arabic, are found in Kentucky as well as Venezuela [citing Cyrus Gordon].
Again, this being apologetics, they just throw a bunch of **** at the wall to see what sticks. For more info, type "Gish Gallop" into your search engine, and choose any link.
I appreciate your taking the time to explain all that. 
