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Why didn't Jesus write anything down?

A thought hits me: since Jesus was God, and God cannot err, but anyone using human language necessarily must err (it is impossible to use human words without subtle misunderstandings all over the place and sometimes serious misunderstandings), Jesus couldn't write anything without erring.

Of course that also implies he couldn't talk, either. Maybe he didn't. Maybe they just thought he talked.

Is this leading anywhere worth going?
 
Well, ok, but He left it to others to write it all down when we know He could have done a much better job of it.
 
Yes, of course. Thing is, as a historical entity, I think he was invented by a group of Asia Minor or Egyptian Greeks playing with Jewish messianic ideas. If he had really lived in Palestine circa 30 CE, we would have known him as "Jesus son of Joseph" (the Hebrew/Aramaic style) rather than "Jesus of Nazareth" (the Greek style).

By the way, by "invented," I am inclined to think of the way mythical invention happens, not actual fraud, although that is possible.
 
The being known as Jesus probably did not exist but a gestalt out of many different historical figgures over time may have merged figuritiviely.
 
Frank Merton said:
Yes, of course. Thing is, as a historical entity, I think he was invented by a group of Asia Minor or Egyptian Greeks playing with Jewish messianic ideas. If he had really lived in Palestine circa 30 CE, we would have known him as "Jesus son of Joseph" (the Hebrew/Aramaic style) rather than "Jesus of Nazareth" (the Greek style).

By the way, by "invented," I am inclined to think of the way mythical invention happens, not actual fraud, although that is possible.
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He couldn't be known as Jesus son of Joseph. That wouldn't fit the myth.
 
Of course there is no evidence found to date, however there remains the possibility that either he or a first hand witness did actually write things down, and those documents have been lost. "Q" could be that document or documents, possibly.
 
Gawdzilla said:
He couldn't be known as Jesus son of Joseph. That wouldn't fit the myth.
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If you refer to Isaiah, that seems to have been a misunderstanding by some Greeks using the Septuagint. Hebrew doesn't have the mistake.

Or are you referring to something else?
 
I think they probably would. Legal father, that is.

My point is trivial -- the "of Nazareth" bit is Greek, not Hebrew or Aramaic, and hence evidence of a Greek rather than Palestinian origin of the story.
 
Frank Merton said:
I think they probably would. Legal father, that is.
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Mine's trivial too, Son of God sound better than "son of some schmuck". :)
My point is trivial -- the "of Nazareth" bit is Greek, not Hebrew or Aramaic, and hence evidence of a Greek rather than Palestinian origin of the story.
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Greek scribes got around, I think the Romans used them a lot?
 
Greek was the common language of the whole of the Mediterranean at that time, that's why that period of Greek is called 'koine' ('common'). It's really not surprising that the Gospels were written in it, and it says nothing about their provenance. In fact, Mark especially is written in a particularly 'Semitic' style of Greek, with sentence structures influenced by Hebrew (or Aramaic) grammar. They could have come from anywhere that there was a substantial Jewish community in the first century, either in Palestine or outside it, we don't know, though there are plenty of theories for each of the Gospels.
 
sleepy_lioness said:
Greek was the common language of the whole of the Mediterranean at that time, that's why that period of Greek is called 'koine' ('common'). It's really not surprising that the Gospels were written in it, and it says nothing about their provenance. In fact, Mark especially is written in a particularly 'Semitic' style of Greek, with sentence structures influenced by Hebrew (or Aramaic) grammar. They could have come from anywhere that there was a substantial Jewish community in the first century, either in Palestine or outside it, we don't know, though there are plenty of theories for each of the Gospels.
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And this further points up the problem with no first-hand recorded statements.
 
Jesus just couldn't convince the Romans that he needed a stay of execution so that he could write a book! The Romans believed he was just stalling for time...
 
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