rocketdodger
Philosopher
- Joined
- Jun 22, 2005
- Messages
- 6,946
To realize why the above statement is so wrong see if you can spot the difference between this sentence
Charles the First walked and talked Half an hour after his head was cut off.and this one
Charles the First walked and talked; Half an hour after, his head was cut off.
The "atomic strings" are exactly the same yet the meaning (I hope you noticed) is utterly different.
Lest you nitpick about the punctuations being an added set of "atomic strings" think of the SPOKEN sentences where the punctuations are just representations of the INTONATIONS of speech....how can a sentence reduced to definitions of its constituent set of “atomic strings” convey the differences in NUANCES OF MEANING and INTENTIONS of the spoken language with all its intonations and stresses?
Yes, you are correct, I was not clear. A language can be reduced to a set of atomic strings AND the set of rules that dictates how those strings can be combined.
However I don't consider the statement that "a dictionary is the set of atomic strings that all languages can be reduced to" to be inconsistent with that. If you use a language's rule set to reduce a language to its atomic strings, what you have is a set of atomic strings.