No, I don't agree that the resulting set of particles is conscious.
What if we had a magic machine that did that to your entire body?
What could your body do that it did before?
Sawing a woman in half is one thing, if you invoke magic to keep each half from dying. She can still kick and wave and smile.
Blowing her to smithereens and spreading her across the galaxy is another kettle of fish entirely, magic or no.
So far, your thought experiment is simply asking, "Can the brain be conscious if the head it's in isn't attached to a body?" (yes, as long as the head stays alive somehow) and "Can the brain be conscious if we blow it to bits?" (no, even if those bits are somehow still performing the same dance moves they were before they got spread out across the galaxy).
Even with the magic to make the particles bounce separately the way they would be bouncing if they were in a brain, dude, you can't atomize a brain and expect it to work.
I'm sorry I thought you understood the point of the machine -- you don't.
When you agreed to the first part, I assumed it meant you understood that the machine was capable of magically "patching up" the fact that some particles were farther from each other than they should be, so that the new interactions between all the particles were effectively the same as the old ones even though the distances are completely different.
The only reason I kept the head intact is because I knew it would be less extreme than some other possibilities, case in point you agreed with that scenario but disagree with this one yet they are actually the same from a technical standpoint.
So lets go back to an even simpler example and make sure we agree to it. Instead of you and the space you are in, lets just look at two particles. Not even two atoms, just two particles.
If, by definition, the machine's action is this:
1) Applying some spatial/temporal transformation to one of the particles ( any of the 4 or more dimensions we know of )
2) "Patching up" the interactions between the two particles such that if behavior A of particle 1 would lead to behavior A of particle 2, 1(A) --> 2(A), in the original "un-transformed" setup, behavior A of particle 1 will lead to behavior A' of particle 2, 1(A)-->2(A'), where the ' denotes that A' is identical to A other than the fact that it has the transformation applied to it.
In other words, if particle 1 would move a little and disturb particle 2 such that it moves a little, the machine would keep this interaction consistent *even if* the transformation applied took particle 2 thousands of lightyears from particle 1. Meaning, the particles would have no idea they were that far from each other -- their causal interactions with each other are effectively the same.
Do you accept this magical action of the machine? Do you accept that after the action of the machine the causal interactions between the two particles are effectively identical?
NOTE that one can view this machine as simply a "modified" laws of nature. We don't know "why" particles act the way they do, we just know "how" they act ( to the extent that we can determine that ). So this machine is simply something that insures the "how" of particle behavior is "locked down" to a given set by drastically changing the "why" of their action.