One of my "unsatisfactory" answers. I guess my point is that if an international currency is being used purely as a medium of exchange and the turn around time (between buying and selling) is relatively short then any risk is correspondingly small regardless of the soundness of the currency.
And this is the folly of your view, in a nutshell. No currency is used solely as a "medium of exchange". It is held by someone, somewhere, at all times. Someone is always exposed to the risk and losses of currency devaluation, and it is most often the people who are the least likely to protect themselves from it (ie: people in the 3rd world who have no bank account, and literally save paper dollars, because their
own currencies are far worse!) Wealthy people don't own currency, they own assets. This is why the inflation tax is a regressive tax.
Let me give you an example. Lets say that I have an intimate knowledge of dollar "security" features, so that I am able to counterfeit $2,000,000 in completely undetectable, absolutely perfect facsimiles of Federal Reserve Notes. Lets say I exchange these for a brand new Bugatti Veyron sports car. We have clear evidence that a theft has occured, as I've exchanged something of a negligible cost for something of great cost. Yet, according to you, we are to believe that if the holders of existing dollars simply turned them over faster, the economic impact of this theft vanishes! The reality is that the Bugatti is a scarce premium sports car, which took real natural resources and real engineers to conceive, design, and manufacture. Taking even one of the approximately 80 that are made each year off of the market will necessarily result in the prices of the other 79 that remain unsold to go higher, all else being equal.
Is a theft born by hundreds of millions of fiat money holders ok just because the burden is spread out? I certainly don't think so.
It is the countries that are locked into long term contracts to sell their produce for $US that have the most to lose in the event of a $US collapse.
It's the people actually holding US dollars and US dollar denominated bank accounts that have the most to lose in the event of a USD collapse. Sellers of food can default on their contracts and still have food to sell (and eat).
Precisely. The fed collecting interest from the government then returning its profits back to the government is nothing more than churn. Since most of your paragraph I agree with I will only deal with the bits where I think you misunderstand me.
Suppose the government runs a ridiculously high deficit of $1T. Under the existing system it has to sell $1T of bonds. However, because this is a lot of money to take out of the money market, it would buy back about $100B of bonds using newly created base money.
The US is running
monthly deficits of well over $200 billion (and scheduled to explode higher), so I submit an annual $1T deficit is not so "ridiculous" in context. I would also add that the government doesn't care about the money market, the government monetizes bonds to fund itself
in excess of normal market demand for debt, because of the very existence of valueless money that you yourself advocate!
At this point the government has financed its deficit with $100B of new fiat currency and $900B of bonds.
The banks of course can then use this $100B of base money to create up to $900B of M1 money. So we have a total $1T of new money and $900B of new bonds. The problem is that not only does the government have to pay interest on the $900B of money it borrowed, the public has to pay interest on the $900B that was created by the banks!
We already agree about the inherent problems with fractional reserve banking. You're preaching to the choir. But you're changing the subject from how deficits get funded, to the fact that the public has to pay interest to private banks for the priviledge of having their currency debased thanks to the money multiplier. This is a
separate issue from having
intrinsically worthless base money.
Under a full reserve system, the banks can't create money so the government can finance its deficit entirely with the printing press without having to borrow anything. Again, we have a total $1T of new money but nobody has to pay interest on it (apart from people who want to borrow some of it).
Both systems are versions of the "counterfeiting tax" but the difference between the two systems is usury.
In other words, you're ok with government stealing and runaway spending (gee, lets just monetize deficits under a 100% reserve system, not limit them), but not ok with bank stealing. So you're more of a statist than I thought.
I am unequivocably against stealing, and for putting hard limits on government spending, and its relentless encroachment upon our lives. You are obviously not, which is why the "solution" of monetary reform absent sound money is a trojan horse - a false solution. I don't want to throw off the yoke of economic slavery by bankers, only to embrace my new slave master, the politician. You obviously either don't comprehend this, or you accept it.
If the banks are unwilling to create the maximum amount of money allowable under FRB then the government can monetize more of its debt (QE1, QE2, QE3, ... ).
Yes, because that worked so well for those who are unemployed, and without any financial assets... I'll put you down as "pro-quantitative easing", too. Fantastic.
The fact that banks might prefer to spend their reserves on bonds instead of creating loans is probably one of the reasons that countries like Canada or Australia have switched to the "corridor system" (where the central bank pays interest on the surplus reserves that the member banks deposit with it).
Great. So if banks are unwilling to risk profiting by the sweat off our backs because we might fail, lets have the central bank monetize their interest payments, which is simply another way of profiting by the sweat off our backs
without risk, via the inflation tax.