If we assume the info you mention above is correct, the bottom line is that the mental illness rates in both areas is very high. The mental illness rates in the US could also be caused to a certain extant by sin but a "different" sin than the Europeans.. The US claims to be more Godly but the US seems to be more materialistic than Europe. The sin of materialism and the love of money (root of all evil) can be the fuel that causes such things as overwork to attain more goods and to keep up with the Jones. Overwork can lead to depression and other mental problems. Also the sin of valuing corporate profit over human factors can lead to human suffering. A great example of this is the movie "Roger and Me" by Michael Moore. This movie shows how the policy of profit over all else practically destroyed the community of Flynt Michigan. This action of practically destroying a town can lead to mental problems.
Thus while the US seems to be more godly on the surface (by such things as a higher church attendance) it is actually less godly in certain areas than Europe. But then again Europe is less godly in certain areas, mainly in its growing lack of recognition and indifference to God.
DOC:
I haven't responded to the post above for a few days because I recently had some password difficulties, which Darat solved for me after a bit of missed communication.
Allow me to point out that in your OP you asserted that Europe's rate of mental illness was greater than that of the U.S. and gave as the reason the decline of religion in Europe. Central to your assertion was the higher rate of mental illness in Europe than in the U.S. Now you're saying that the U.S. is just as bad as Europe. That would seem to totally undermine your argument.
So, you now switch, it seems, to an argument that ungodliness in general is the cause for high rates of mental illness in both Europe and the U.S. While I completely agree with your arguments in the hilited area, I must point out two major flaws in your new argument:
1) The depression and stress generated by the auto makers in Detroit abandoning their work force for the sake of profit is not echoed in Europe, where, despite the decline in religion (or, arguably
because of it, considering religion-based opposition to such programs), welfare democracies have limited profits and provided safety nets for displaced workers. Yet, for all the increased support, their rate of mental illness are comparable to that of the U.S.
2) Though church attendance rates in the U.S. and Canada are comparable, Canada's rate of mental illness is less than half that of the U.S. I could argue that Canada, unlike the U.S., has had a decent medical care system. This, along with other factors - less stress from being in the midst of world politics, greater ethnic homogeneity, lower population - could be the reasons Canada has a considerably lower rate of mental illness than the U.S. However, I would also have to acknowledge that many European countries share many of these attributes (with the exception of lower population pressure), yet have mental illness rates comparable to that of the U.S. How, for example, could we account for the high rate of depression in France?
One thing I could not argue is that the lower rate of mental illness in Canada is the result of greater godliness. The Canadians are certainly as secular as we in the U.S. are. Unless you can demonstrate greater piety among Canadians, your argument fails here, just as it does regarding Europe.
It would appear, then, that rates of mental illness vary from country to country based on an idiosyncratic mix of factors. These may include the presence or absence of social safety nets, varying levels of ethnic and cultural homogeneity, varying levels of population pressure, political conditions and individual differences in national character. There is no indication, whatsoever that rates of mental illness are tied to the presence or absence of religious practice and conviction. Ergo, in light of the evidence, your argument fails utterly, Q.E.D.
