Edx
Philosopher
- Joined
- Feb 1, 2008
- Messages
- 5,642
Whatever indeed. Right I claim that was in the OP because it was. By his own admission it was answered. He certainly did say he can't explain it. As I posted above.
Post 429 oyestein said "(Let it be known for the record that I have serious doubts that anywhere in the debris pile, furnace-like conditions arose that were both sufficient to melt steel and open enough to allow visual observation. So what? It doesn't matter if we can explain molten steel or not, if any existed at all. Any molten steel weeks after the collapses would be evidence of some condition in the debris pile, but, absent any theory, not evidence of anything of some condition in the intact buildings before collapse. Miragememories already admitted that he has no theory, only speculation.)"
To which Travis replied "Sure" in post 431.
He certainly agreed he can't explain.
What more is there to say? he agreed it can't be explained, therefore there is every reason to believe it was malicious.
*sigh* Since there is much more to Oystein's post than just that and GlennB replied first before Travis wbo quotes neither, how are you so certain you know exactly what part of Oystein's post he is talking about when he says "sure?", whether he is even refering to Oystein at all or what he meant when he said it?
You sure do like to make some big assumptions. I guess that even when Travis turns up to clarify what he really thinks you'll tell him he doesnt really think what he says he thinks.
Here is the questions the OP asked:
"Is this supposed to mean thermite was used? If so how much thermite (a self oxidizing agent) is needed to still be reacting six weeks after initiation?
Why are other avenues of steel melting (such as in a rare natural furnace effect) dismissed?"
As sheeplesnshills says, truthers have yet to explain it.
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