Evidence for why we know the New Testament writers told the truth.

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genemc said:
I hope you guys aren't slowing down, its just getting interesting. My first post. I did want to make it worthwhile.
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Not slowing down, but we occasionally have to stop and get directions.


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Welcome the EFZ.

:)
 
Lothian said:
I am shocked it is taking you so long. Let us get this straight. You asked me for a discrepancy then insisted I was more specific. I responded to your requests yet you have totally ignored that response despite all the prompting I gave you. I can repost the prompts if you want, but I think it is suffice to say your behaviour in this matter has been very rude

Given how key the death of Jesus is you must have read that part of the bile many times. You must have noticed the different accounts. Why can you not explain it now? Why do you need 10 days?
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A typo (highlighted) that still makes perfect sense and may be more accurate than the intended word. Is there a word for that?

Lothian, as for DOC's 'rudeness', do you honestly believe that a xenophobic, homophobic, liar has any care or respect regarding social niceties?
 
Regarding Jesus' last words on the cross

I see no contradiction with Jesus' words on the cross. "No" Gospel writer said Jesus' last words were:______

Skeptics have to assume something to make their argument, so if skeptics can assume things, I've included a link below that makes an assumption or two.

John says "When Jesus therefore had received the vinegar, he said "It is finished:" and bowed his head and gave up the ghost". Nowhere does John say Jesus' last words were "It is finished". He didn't say how long Jesus' head was bowed, it might have been bowed for 15 minutes before he died as far as we know. Let's say it was bowed 5 minutes; you can say a lot in 5 minutes but John didn't report it, or maybe his attention was diverted momentarily to something a criminal or a guard said; or he was busy trying to comfort the woman who were with him who might have been crying.

But for aguments sake let's say John did hear Jesus say: Father, into thy hands I commend my spirit. He might have simply conveyed those words to us by saying "and {he} gave up the ghost". The wording "gave up" implies a conscious deliberate action. This correlates with Jesus saying "Father, into thy hands I commend my spirit" which is a conscious deliberate action. So as mentioned, John was simply conveying this wording of Jesus to us by saying "and gave up the ghost".

On a different note this wording tells us that Jesus' spirit never did die on the cross because he was giving it to God (the father), only his body died (which was then resurrected later).

This link has another explanation:

Scroll down about 3/4 of the way to the question: Do the Gospels Disagree on Jesus' Last Words on the Cross?

http://contenderministries.org/discrepancies/contradictions.php#17


ETA So I have still never seen an alleged NT contradiction that can't logically be explained.

But even if I did see a minor contradiction that couldn't be explained that wouldn't mean Jesus was never resurrected or didn't do the things mentioned during his ministry. Nowhere does Jesus say after I go to heaven there will be a New Testament written by my followers consisting of 4 independent gospels and those 4 independent gospels will be perfectly consistent in every minute detail.
 
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DOC said:
I see no contradiction with Jesus' words on the cross. "No" Gospel writer said Jesus' last words were:______

Skeptics have to assume something to make their argument, so if skeptics can assume things, I've included a link below that makes an assumption or two.


John says "When Jesus therefore had received the vinegar, he said "It is finished:" and bowed his head and gave up the ghost". Nowhere does John say Jesus' last words were "It is finished". He didn't say how long Jesus' head was bowed, it might have been bowed for 15 minutes before he died as far as we know. Let's say it was bowed 5 minutes; you can say a lot in 5 minutes but John didn't report it, or maybe his attention was diverted momentarily to something a criminal or a guard said or he was busy trying to comfort the woman who were with him who might have been crying.

But for agument's sake let's say John did hear Jesus say: Father, into thy hands I commend my spirit. He might have simply conveyed those words to us by saying "and {he} gave up the ghost". The wording "gave up" implies a conscious deliberate action. This correlates with Jesus saying "Father, into thy hands I commend my spirit" which is a conscious deliberate action. So as mentioned John was simply conveying this wording of Jesus to us by saying "and gave up the ghost".

On a different note this wording tells us that Jesus' spirit never did die on the cross because he was giving it to God (the father), only his body died (which was then resurrected later).

This link has another explanation:

Scroll down about 3/4 of the way to the question: Does Jesus last words

http://contenderministries.org/discrepancies/contradictions.php#17
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I already posted what Jesus' last words were:

I know what Jesus' last words were. I asked. I asked God. His last words were "La ilaha ilAllah".

Poor misguided chap.
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http://www.internationalskeptics.com/forums/showpost.php?p=6977062&postcount=18921
 
Scroll down about 3/4 of the way to the question: Does Jesus last words [sic]
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DOC, after you cited AboveTopSecret.com, and StormFront.com, why should anyone follow your links?

You can't even be bothered to post a teaser?
 
John Jones said:
DOC, after you cited AboveTopSecret.com, and StormFront.com, why should anyone follow your links?

You can't even be bothered to post a teaser?
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Not only that, he doesn't seem to know that "gave up the ghost" is an idiom meaning "died" and in this case "gave up" has no connotation of a deliberate action.

Heck, he doesn't even seem to know that "last" means "nothing else afterward."
 
Elizabeth I said:
Not only that, he doesn't seem to know that "gave up the ghost" is an idiom meaning "died" and in this case "gave up" has no connotation of a deliberate action.

Heck, he doesn't even seem to know that "last" means "nothing else afterward."
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He seems to be having some difficulty with "and" as well.
 
doc,

Thanks for that link, and if the audience will indulge me, a few nuggets of startling scholarship:


"It is also possible that different accounts are due to an early copyist error in Mark, that resulted in the insertion of
 
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