If my source is incorrect then show us your source.
Your own source says that you are incorrect. What do you think it means by intragovernmental holdings?
If my source is incorrect then show us your source.
And in the same post too. I think the drkitten school of sarcasm isn't helping you at all.
This is complete nonsense. Governments spend on many more programs than they used to, often with built in funding increases that exceed reasonable expectations of economic growth. That is where deficits come from, not fractional reserve lending.
The merits of any given program are up for debate but that is a different topic. What is relevant here is that fractional reserve lending does not force governments to increase spending on welfare, education, health services, public pension plans etc. To blame fractional reserve lending for rising government debts completely ignores the massive increase in programs that governments fund. Doing so is utterly absurd.
This is complete nonsense. Governments spend on many more programs than they used to, often with built in funding increases that exceed reasonable expectations of economic growth. That is where deficits come from, not fractional reserve lending.
The merits of any given program are up for debate but that is a different topic. What is relevant here is that fractional reserve lending does not force governments to increase spending on welfare, education, health services, public pension plans etc. To blame fractional reserve lending for rising government debts completely ignores the massive increase in programs that governments fund. Doing so is utterly absurd.
Sure some governments do spend on more programs, but they also spend less on other things that they no longer contol due to foreignisation sell offs such as water, electricity, telecomunications, much of infrastructure. The tax payer now pays directly to the supplier instead. Its absurd to think fractional reserve banking does not contibute to these deficits
Your own source says that you are incorrect. What do you think it means by intragovernmental holdings?
Yeah, Webb's views are pretty special, even by the standards of other special posters on this topic.
You haven't provided any reason to think that it does.
You need to think for yourself and not just barrack for drkitten. Who's bank account is the repaid loans supposed to go into if the bank can't lend the money again?Well, the banks can’t lend the money that’s paid back to them on present loans, because some wonder-dummy has instituted a 100% reserve requirement.
You need to think for yourself and not just barrack for drkitten. Who's bank account is the repaid loans supposed to go into if the bank can't lend the money again?
So when you made the "you’re in favour of a one-off, massive explosion in the money supply" quip you obviously didn't have a clue what you were talking about. The tragic part is that you can't see any of the contradictions in your posts.the repaid money we’re talking about has to account for the 90% extra in reserves a bank is forced to hold.
So when you made the "you’re in favour of a one-off, massive explosion in the money supply" quip you obviously didn't have a clue what you were talking about. The tragic part is that you can't see any of the contradictions in your posts.
From Post #609: "It wouldn't come to that initially because in the transition, debt based money in trading accounts would be replaced by government issued fiat money and the money on loan would not change.".I was trying to understand your point actually. If your point was actually possible, it would engender a one-off massive explosion in the money supply.
The Fed owns almost 1/2 of US treasury securities. Source.
So, why did Zimbabwe reach a zillion % inflation rate but the rest of the world that prints money has not?
They must be, because the two greatest economic collapses in the time we're talking were not caused by FRB.
Eh? How on earth would the amount of money on loan remain the same? There would be a huge drop in loans, because banks would be prevented from loaning any reserves. Even with your idealistic "investment deposit accounts", where clients can choose to invest their money in an account which is then loaned out, the amount of available loans would never be able to satisfy the demand for loans.
In essence, a 100% reserve requirement would mean banks would only lend to those of ample means (ie those guaranteed to pay everything back) and would charge a premium amount of interest due to the fact that loans would be so much harder to get.
Interesting. Does that mean that the government raided the social security treasure chest and replaced the money with bonds? If so, I can see an upcoming generation that won't be getting any social security.Actually I think it's higher than 9%, and substantially lower than the 49.37% which that chart indicates. Most of that number is actually "Intragovernmental holdings", like Social Security, et al.
So are you saying that the Fed doesn’t sell bonds to fund government expenditure? Where does all the money from bond sales go then?
Haha, I love how you quote Bernanke in your sig but then ignore everything else he said in that speech.
Yeah…Materials, labour, R&D etc play no part at all in the price of goods/assets or services!
Interesting. Does that mean that the government raided the social security treasure chest and replaced the money with bonds? If so, I can see an upcoming generation that won't be getting any social security.
BTW how much does the Fed actually hold in government bonds?
Skeptic-PK tried to accuse me of advocating a system where money from repaid loans is not lent out again. If you read my posts, you would know that this is totally false.This is true. As the reserve requirement is increased towards 100%, it would be accompanied by a collapse in credit, which would be hyper-deflationary. This is why the Monetary Reform Act, for instance, advocates using rate policy or QE to offset this.
This is also true. But considering our economic problems have been preciselytoo much credit, it is also in fact, the solution. Credit would not be non-existent, it would just be more expensive, as rates would reflect reality, not decades of Fed manipulation.
To provide the funds for this reserve increase, the US Treasury Department would be authorized to issue new United States Notes (and/or US Note accounts) sufficient in quantity to pay off the entire national debt (and replace all Federal Reserve Notes).