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Why is there a "now"?

Since you bring up the reversibility of time, by what mechanism do you recall the past but not the future? Yes, we can vaguely say "there is some kinda asymmetry because of entropy", but do you have any mechanism by which entropy has imprinted models of past events in your neurons but not of future ones? (Or why the craters of the moon reflect its past history but not its future?) If so, maybe that would give some hints for my question.

The amount by which entropy increases is staggering. We don't remember things from the future because it is an extremely unlikely to happen. The only reason we can remember things from the past is the lower entropy in the past allowed us to do so.

For any system, entropy should increase no matter which time direction you are looking in. Its just we have a fixed point far in the past where entropy was very, very low.
 
Ok, you then might wonder why can't you reverse your direction without turning around. After all, you can walk backwards; it's slower, harder, and makes you more likely to fall on your butt, but hardly impossible. And here, yet again, the answer has to do with scale: if you were an electron, then it could happen to you, at least in the sense that there are physical processes that are empirically indistinguishable from an electron bouncing so hard that it starts going in the opposite time direction. It is only your size and the sheer number of particles that are your constituents that make it effectively impossible that the same kind of thing could ever happen to you.

I don't think its a general property of feynman diagrams, but I've always loved messing around with the diagram of an electron interacting with a photon. If you turn it 90 degrees, you have an election and positron annihilating to form two photons, or if you like, an electron interacting with a photon that came from the future and bouncing backwards in time with the photon also now bouncing in time and changing to go forward in time.
 
OK, so their "here" at some point in time can match (in ECEF geocentric coordinate space) your "here" at some other point in time. But how does that relate to my assertion that the spatial delta between your "here" and my "here" varies freely (which INCLUDES your potential overlap at disneyland but does not require it), while the time distance from your "now" and my "now" is always zero, plus or minus relativistic fuzziness. Your observation seems quite consistent.

Consider two observers Alice and Bob that are moving at a high relative velocity. Let's assume they can occupy the same spatial location and that, at some time, they are in the same place. At this time, they both see their occupation of this region of space as simultaneous. (In fact, so will everyone else; their overlap is a single event in spacetime, and the simultaneity of an event with itself is invariant.) So at that "now," as it's being put here, they're in the same place; we'll label this time as t=0 in both frames of reference.

If we're to consider a third observer (named Xavier) who never occupies this region of space, we may ask what he's doing at the time when Alice and Bob are in the same place. Both Alice and Bob would have a different answer to this question since Alice and Bob would both see Xavier at different points in his own timeline at t=0. If we define Xavier's "now" as the time which is contemporaneous with Alice's and Bob's "now," then Xavier's "now" varies between Alice and Bob.

If we are to say that events contained in the future and past don't actually "exist" in some real way, i.e. are just an analytic abstraction, and that only events in the present are real, then what Xavier is really doing varies between observers, which (as far as I can tell from the contextual uses I've seen of the word) contradicts the use of "real." If you want events in space and time to be "real" then you need to believe that events in the past and the future are actually real, located in "places" (so to speak) in the past and the future, which really exist and really contain events. If you want to believe that events in the past and future are just analytic constructions and aren't actually real, then you have to say the same of events at other spatial locations. So it's eternalism or idealism.

In fairness, I lean more towards idealism myself, but as I said that's not very popular among sciencey folk and I'm not sure you (or other users on this forum) would be inclined to think the same way.

But this point - the relativity of simultaneity eliminating the feasibility of a global present - is not any sort of "fuzziness." It's not a measurement error. It's integral to the very meaning of time and space in modern physics. The only way to get out of it is to assume some neo-Lorentzian interpretation of relativity where it is supposed that there is a special reference frame where observers can get time measurements correct and that all the laws of physics just happen coincidentally to transform in a certain way which has nothing to do with the structure of spacetime - but that's a really contrived view to take. Anyone who assumes it would be in the company of William Lane Craig though.
 
All I would ask of the gentle reader is this: if it seems like my point is particularly shallow and obvious, at least consider that maybe I'm not quite that stupid and that I might be trying to convey something more subtle than comes across at first blush. It can't hurt to try to look a bit deeper.

I've no reason to think you're stupid. Even if you were wrong, you could be very bright. In this case, I don't think you're actually wrong - my impression is merely that you're stuck within an inconvenient interpretative framework; inconvenient because it prevents you from explaining some phenomena satisfactorily as long as you're looking at them the way you are.

And of course I also admit the possibility that you may be trying to convey some subtle point that has eluded me so far (and is still eluding me).

I do realize that the whole issue is clouded by the relativity of simultaneity; however I find that to be a further twist which complicates this issue rather than providing an explanation.

I believe your arguments can be put forth and answered not only in SR, but also in simple Newtonian physics, so for what it's worth, I have no problem with excluding SR from the discussion for the moment and sticking with classical notions of time and space.

OK, somebody pointed out that your "now" as you read this message is different than my "now" as I wrote it, even by hours. Of course, both of our "now" locations move. That seriously misses the point. I'm saying that you cannot change your now *relative to my now* by 5 hours. By the time you read the message, we have BOTH moved our "now" forward by the same 5 hours, and the time I wrote it is 5 hours in both of our pasts.

I disagree, and I believe your conclusion is merely a product of vague definitions. And at this moment, I'm going to ask you to consider that perhaps I do hear what you're saying and my objections may be relevant.

A major source of confusion is using the terms "person X" (with special instances of "you", "me" etc.) and "person X at time T" interchangeably. The former refers to an entity that spans many locations and many points in time, the latter to an entity with a single location and point in time. One can also say that the former is a set of many instances of the latter (just like a line is a set of many points).

In any case, "now" and "here" are terms that are only defined for the latter: "person X at time T". If you omit that qualification and assume that some time is implied, then this omission and the successive silent implication becomes the source of the mysterious "cursor" in your reasoning.

Let's go back to what you wrote:
I'm saying that you cannot change your now *relative to my now* by 5 hours.

You wrote "my now" without specifying any particular time T to go with the person "I". So you need to imply some time, perhaps the time you wrote that (3:41 UTC). The same goes for "your now" - you need to imply some time. And here's the rub: "my now" is only the same as "your now" as long as the times you imply, T(I) and T(you), are the same. They're the same because you implied they're the same. If they weren't the same, if you were looking at "you" and "me" at different times, then "my now" and "your now" can indeed differ, by 5 hours or more.

Do you see what I'm saying? The sharing of "now" is not a conclusion, it's a silent assumption that you plugged in.

By the time you read the message, we have BOTH moved our "now" forward by the same 5 hours, and the time I wrote it is 5 hours in both of our pasts.

Not really. You say "you" and "I", but what you mean is "you at time T+5 hours" and "I at time T+5 hours". That these two persons share the same "now" is no wonder indeed.

We both travel into the future in lockstep - you can't stop or reverse or go faster or slower. This is fundamentally unlike x,y,z - where you can change your x completely independent of mine, without the slightest lockstep or synchronizing. The relative distance between your position in space (your here) and mine (my here) can and does vary freely. Your relative "now" cannot.

That's because you dismiss instances of persons at times other than the time that you're thinking this. You say that everyone shares your "now" because when you speak of others, you're referring only to persons at the same time as the time you imply for yourself. It's only your attention that makes those particular instances of those persons special.

Let's see what that does to your argument when we speak it aloud:
The relative distance between your position in space (your here) and mine (my here) can and does vary freely, even if your time is the same as mine. Your relative "now" cannot, if your time is the same as mine.

It's not so mysterious now, is it? The difference between time and space that you point out is due to your constraint on time that you don't apply to space. If you applied the same constraint to space, i.e. if you only ever considered persons around you (after all, you can't directly interact with persons far away), you would indeed find that everyone around you shares the same "here". Even if you moved somewhere else altogether, everyone around you would still share the same "here"!

If we describe spacetime as four dimensions, "now" is a special hyperplane sweeping through the time dimension - at the exact same pace and time location for everybody.

For everybody at the time that you're thinking this. For persons at other times, this is not true at all.

And we all experience that same sweeping hyperplane, where the future becomes the past.

Yes, we all do, and this is true for all persons at all times. But, even when two persons share that experience, the time of their "now" can and does vary. "Me today" and "you tomorrow" will both agree about the experience but will disagree about the time of "now".

As for Newton - he's no longer in the route 66 convoy. His consciousness no longer partakes of the shared now. His life history has a starting and ending point in the time dimension (which I concede physics handles well), but he's not part of "now", he's not riding the moving cursor. That's why we cannot interact with him.

You could say the same thing about people far away from you to explain that they're not part of the shared "here", not riding the moving cursor of space.

Of course, you could object that:
You and I could interact right now, by telephone (again, with milliseconds of time fuzziness), crossing space freely except for the (mostly light) limitation of c and relativity. Or I could fly there and talk in person. But we both equally cannot have a talk with Newton.

But we can have a talk with someone who will be born in 500 years - just dust off your hibernation chamber. And Newton can and does send messages to us that we can read.

What we can't do is send messages to Newton, or live at the same time so that we can have a talk in person. More precisely, though: we could live at the same time as Newton, it could happen. But your decision today cannot make that possibility true in the past. Your decision can only affect events after that decision. That is called causality, and in that regard, time is different from space, as already explained.

But causality doesn't require the concept of special "now". Indeed, causality works equally well in your past and in your future; consequences come after causes, regardless of where in that scheme you think your "now" is.
 
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Just in case, I'll answer this more directly; forgive me if you have already extrapolated the implicit responses from other postings of mine.

What I'm saying is that quite unlike our "heres" where the spacial distance varies wildly and freely, the time distance between your now and my now is always zero (give or take tiny relativistic fuzziness). Likewise everybody else's. This synchronistic "now" is a very special (albeit changing) location on the time axis, and is not explained by physics (that I've seen yet).

That we take this so strongly for granted is a measure for how ubiquitous it is; so much so that we can fail to notice that science and physics (that I so far know of) doesn't even have any handle on it.

You claimed “only one "now" shared by all of us” if you can’t physicaly define any such “very special” “now” then it is only your continuing assertion of such that “is not explained by physics”. As already noted before the relativity of simultaneity already demonstrates that there is no such “synchronistic "now"“. So not only is a “very special” “only one "now shared by all of us” not physically definable it is factually refuted by the relativity of simultaneity.


You are on the same track I followed; time is not like the other dimensions because of that inexorable "change" and "directionality". You seem to agree that you can't stop where your "now" is located on the timeline, and you can't move it backward, unlike spatial dimensions. But we can explore that a step further, look for other differences. We all change our the time location of our "now" together. To use your route 66, all conscious beings (at least) appear to be traveling in convoy, nobody's "now" is significantly ahead or behind on the route, nobody can change their position relative to others on the time axis. The location of that convoy of consciousness is what we call "now".

The relativity of time is well established, even if we were “in sync” so to speak at one point in time in some reference frame there is no guarantee or requirement that we must continue to remain so or have been thus in the past.

Please remember that time represents our notion of change and as such it must always change even when everything else remains the same. In fact it is that time changes even when nothing else does that establishes that nothing else has changed.


Yes, I think it does have something to do with how we perceive it, or with consciousness. At least, I have trouble conceiving how a moon rock would experience a "now" concept that separates "past" and "future", even though I do believe it has a measurable timeline which is very accessible to physics.

Only the confusion has something to do with how we perceive it. Physically and mathematical “here” is no different than “now” and “now” is just “here” in say light kilometers. Both are simply locations along some axis that one could even use as the origin of that axis. The problem comes mainly from using yourself as the origin representing “here” and “now”. Spatially it is easy to see the “here” you may be at later (“there”) but still that is not even “there” “now” you are looking at “there” from some time ago. All we see and essentially perceive of the out side world is the past. In order for you to perceive it must have already happened and the further out, spatially in any direction, that perception extends the further back in time it extends as well. So “there” and “then” are as inescapably linked as are “here” and “now”. It is just that (as mentioned by Vorpal before) we are far more capable of perceiving the spatial difference between “here” and “there” then we are at perceiving the temporal difference between “now” and “then” even in just our immediate surroundings.


I would agree that's the bridge between time as a dimension and the spatial dimensions, and in fact that's one of the prerequisites for understanding what I'm trying to say. Time as a dimension (and it's relationship with gravity) is dealt with by relativity. That's your route 66 metaphor, time as a continuum or dimension with extent and direction. But the concept of "now" is not - a special inexorably changing point on that route shared by all of us.

Once again please define this “special inexorably changing point on that route shared by all of us”. If you can’t then you simply have no basis for such an assertion. It is not that physics can’t explain such a “now” it is that physics demonstrates that such a “now” is simply indefinable and the relativity of simultaneity explains why such a “now” is indefinable.


Again, you are on a similar track of reasoning.

Zeph


Nope, not now and not before, but hopefully soon.
 
Now is all there is, what came before now really does not exist anymore, unless you can suddenly move your observation point several light years away and look back and see what was then now, then. But it would still be from the perspective of now, until later, but not before, it can only be processed in the now.
 
Look, I know where your trying to go (or at least I think I do); I just don't see why you're making a big deal of 'now'. Say you're walking down the sidewalk when you realize you forgot something, so you turn around and go the other way. Nothing special. So why can't you do the same with your past? Well, an obvious difference is that your turning around involved actual turning--your operation was done in more than one spatial dimension. If you were in a very tight cramped corridor, it wouldn't be available to you.

I appreciate your patience. I respect the knowledge that you and others are bringing to this discussion.

I'm not in all honestly understanding how the analogy of "turning around in a tight space" applies here. What thing exactly would one "turn around"? (That non-existent thing I've called "now"?) Does the thing to be turned around pehaps have an immutable length along the time dimension and some constraint whereby that extent must be maintained which cannot happen without an accessible additional dimension through which to "rotate"? I haven't yet seen reference to that in physics, but I'm open to references. If "now" was, for example, a dimensionless point, what would turning it around consist of?

Recall that I've asserted that one cannot move their now "faster" or "slower" than others - even without "turning around".

Ok, you then might wonder why can't you reverse your direction without turning around. After all, you can walk backwards; it's slower, harder, and makes you more likely to fall on your butt, but hardly impossible. And here, yet again, the answer has to do with scale: if you were an electron, then it could happen to you, at least in the sense that there are physical processes that are empirically indistinguishable from an electron bouncing so hard that it starts going in the opposite time direction. It is only your size and the sheer number of particles that are your constituents that make it effectively impossible that the same kind of thing could ever happen to you.

I apologize, but I don't follow your reasoning. To my insufficiently tutored mind (and I am not being sarcastic), it sounds like hand waving - electrons could back up in time without turning around, but humans would have to turn around first. Up to what size is it possible for particles to reverse themselves in time without "turning around"? Is there experimental evidence of that? If electrons can reverse in time (with or without turning around) can electrons stop in time, or move faster or slower?

Zeph
 
Please remember that time represents our notion of change and as such it must always change even when everything else remains the same. In fact it is that time changes even when nothing else does that establishes that nothing else has changed.

Thanks for that one. :-) At least we're all in a similar stew of trying to discuss metatime, and lacking good words for it, so I'm not picking on the wording.

What does "change" mean to you, if the past and future all exist with no distinction? Why do you assume or assert that it "must" change? That seems to imply some kind of movement along the time axis (t inexorably varies, whether or not x,y,z do). So what exactly is "moving" along that axis?

My answer would be "the perception of 'now' is what 'must always change' ".
I don't see anything else which "must change".

It is just that (as mentioned by Vorpal before) we are far more capable of perceiving the spatial difference between “here” and “there” then we are at perceiving the temporal difference between “now” and “then” even in just our immediate surroundings.

Maybe what I'm calling "now" is related the limits of our perception along the time domain (virtually nil at a given location).

Once again please define this “special inexorably changing point on that route shared by all of us”. If you can’t then you simply have no basis for such an assertion. It is not that physics can’t explain such a “now” it is that physics demonstrates that such a “now” is simply indefinable and the relativity of simultaneity explains why such a “now” is indefinable.

Hmmm. I've been asserting that in essence physics has no description of the concept for which we use the English word "now", in that there is no distinction in physics between any two points of time, one of which in English would be labeled "now" and one of which would be labeled "Another time".

I'm not sure if you are agreeing with that, or disagreeing. Are you disputing that there is any meaning of any sort whatsoever to the term "now", or are you saying it doesn't have a meaning within the framework of physics, are are you saying that the concept of "now" is actually well explained in physics?

One option would be "the concept behind the English word "now" is meaningless in the world of physics, undefinable within that framework". That was pretty much my initial assertion. Are you agreeing?

Zeph
 
I believe your arguments can be put forth and answered not only in SR, but also in simple Newtonian physics, so for what it's worth, I have no problem with excluding SR from the discussion for the moment and sticking with classical notions of time and space.

Thanks.


I disagree, and I believe your conclusion is merely a product of vague definitions. And at this moment, I'm going to ask you to consider that perhaps I do hear what you're saying and my objections may be relevant.

Oh, I do. I'm reading respectfully, trying to understand, not just to talk.

What we can't do is send messages to Newton, or live at the same time so that we can have a talk in person. More precisely, though: we could live at the same time as Newton, it could happen. But your decision today cannot make that possibility true in the past. Your decision can only affect events after that decision.

I'm not sure how we could live at the same time as Newton, but I'll let that pass unless you think it's an important point. But..

When does one make that decision? What makes you imagine that this "decision" thing can affect the future (is the river of time frozen or not?) Or to be (slightly) more precise, at what point in time does the power to make a decision occur (do we have a name for the point of transition between a changeable future and an unchangeable past)?

I've kind of used up my time for now, and need to chew more on what you've said. Thanks,
Zeph
 
Recall that I've asserted that one cannot move their now "faster" or "slower" than others - even without "turning around".
You discussed stopping and reversing your time direction in the same breath in post 74. I'm going to come back to that in a bit, but in the above you are incorrect as well.

Let's say you're looking at an ordinary plane (Euclidean), and you want to describe directionality of something, so you draw a bunch of vectors of the same length Δs, say some standard meter-stick. The Pythagorean theorem/distance formula then says that from their point of origin, the vectors satisfy (Δs)² = (Δx)² + (Δy)², like so:
Code:
   /|             Δs² = (Δx)² + (Δy)²
Δs/ | Δy              = (Δs)²cos²θ + (Δs)²sin²θ
 /  |    ^y      
/___|    |        Euclidean case
 Δx      +->x     (angle θ from pos. x-axis)
As you vary your angle θ, the operation traces out the curve s² = x²+y² if the vectors are from the origin: a circle. That seems like a lot of work just to justify what everyone intuitively already knows--that in space, you can turn any which way you like. But this is going to be important in contrasting what happens when time is involved.

Suppose you're recording events, when and where they occur, and you plot them in four-dimensional spacetime. There's yet no claim about any physicality/'reality' or any other significance of events in this spacetime. For now, it's just 4-tuples (t,x,y,z), so it makes sense in both Newtonian and relativistic physics. You can draw vectors in this spacetime; physically, they represent a change of position (Δx,Δy,Δz) during some change of your time time measurement (Δt), i.e., a velocity. What does rotation mean? Well, it's changing the 4-vector, which changes the velocity, so rotation in spacetime = acceleration. I'm going to supress two spatial dimensions.

(BTW, note that there is no mathematical problem in the clock going backwards in time; just make Δt < 0 in your 4-vector.)

But the velocity does not determine the length of that vector, since (Δt,Δx) represents the same velocity as, say, (2Δt,2Δx), as (2Δx)/(2Δt) = Δx/Δt. So just as we had a standard meter-stick before, let's take a standard clock-tick Δτ as the length, representing the time some standard clock would give when it travels through the events along the vector. The Newtonian case is kind of boring, though:
Code:
 Δx
+---
|  /   ^t      (Δτ)² = (Δt)²
| /Δτ  |       Galilean/Newtonian case
|/     +-->x
It just says that the clock's measurement is the same as your measurement. Your time is everybody's time. No matter which way you turn in spacetime, you can't change that. No one goes "faster" or "slower" in time: |Δτ/Δt| = 1, always. Hyperplanes of simultaneity are also same for everybody:
Code:
<--------> 
<--------> ^t   Simultaneity in Newtonian physics
<--------> |
<--------> +-->x
So if you wanted to, you could consistently claim that 'now' is in some way more special than the past or future. You don't have to, of course; "they're all equally real" is also consistent with Newtonian physics. But there's nothing in the physics that forces you to choose one way or another. It's a metaphysical question at best.

If we describe spacetime as four dimensions, "now" is a special hyperplane sweeping through the time dimension - at the exact same pace and time location for everybody.
I don't agree that we're forced to admit that in Newtonian physics, but I agree that it's consistent. But it's definitely not consistent with relativistic physics. There, things a bit different there:
Code:
 Δx            (Δτ)² = (Δt)² - (Δx)²
+---                 = (Δτ)²cosh²α - (Δτ)²sinh²α ]
|  /   ^t      Lorentzian/special-relativistic case
| /Δτ  |       (angle α from pos. t-axis)
|/     +-->x
Already there is clear contradiction with your claim that "one cannot move their now 'faster' or 'slower' than others", since if (Δτ)² = (Δt)² - (Δx)², then the moving clock's measurement Δτ will not be the same as your measurement Δt. With a bit of algebra, one can rearrange it to:
|Δt/Δτ| = 1/sqrt[ 1 - (Δx/Δt)² ] = 1/sqrt[ 1 - v² ] = γ ("Lorentz gamma"),
which is the usual form of relativistic time dilation. Your 'now' and the moving clock's 'now' are "advancing to the future" at different rates!.

So you can indeed affect this just by accelerating. Can you turn around completely, i.e., the go backwards in time? Well, no; just as in Euclidean geometry, rotation traces out a circle, here it traces out the curve τ² = t² - x², which is a hyperbola. Hyperbolas have two asymptotes; no matter how hard you accelerate, you won't cross them. Your hyperplanes of simultaneity and the clock's hyperplanes of simultaneity will be different as well. Unfortunately, I can't draw good diagrams in ASCII, but I can try to explain it if you like.

I'm not in all honestly understanding how the analogy of "turning around in a tight space" applies here.
Suppose there were two time dimensions, t and t'. Say the spacetime metric was (Δτ)² = (Δt)² + (Δt')² - (Δx)² - (Δy)² - (Δz)² or something. Then the time parts together would act like an Euclidean subspace and you could turn around any way you liked in time. "Why is there just one time dimension?" is not any more asburd than "why are there three spatial dimensions?".

... it sounds like hand waving - electrons could back up in time without turning around, but humans would have to turn around first. Up to what size is it possible for particles to reverse themselves in time without "turning around"?
No, the first point was that you can't turn around because there only is one time dimension (if there were more, then you could), and time does not mix in the same way with space (see above).

The second point was that if you can't turn around by actual rotations, then the only other way available to you is some kind of discrete "flip" in your time orientation: one moment you're going forward, the next backward without any any intermediate turning. That's the "tight space" analogy. Electrons can do this in some sense. You can't.

Is there experimental evidence of that? If electrons can reverse in time (with or without turning around) can electrons stop in time, or move faster or slower?
Sure: time dilation, as above (though it can't stop for massive objects). As for reversing, also yes, again in the sense that there are phenomena that can be interpreted that way in a logically consistent manner. Suppose you have an electron bouncing in time several times, sometimes going forward an sometimes going backward
Code:
       /\      /^         / = diagonal-up (can't draw diagonal
  /\  /  \    /   t^      \ = diagonal-down    arrows very well)
 /  \/    \  /     | 
/          \/      +-->x
It needs something to bounce from, and besides gravity, electrons interact only with the electromagnetic field (and to other charges via the electromagnetic field). So imagine than in every vertex, there is also a photon likewise bouncing into the other time direction (of energy E = γmc², so it's nothing to sneeze at for larger masses!).

What would that look like to you? Well, an electron going backward in time would react oppositely to electromagnetic fields, so you would measure opposite charge. Every down (V) vertex in the above diagram would look like two photons coming in and an electron and its mirror twin coming out, while every up (^) vertex would look like an electron and its twin coming in and two photons coming out. In other words, electron-positron pair creation and annihilation, respectively.
 
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Thanks for that one. :-) At least we're all in a similar stew of trying to discuss metatime, and lacking good words for it, so I'm not picking on the wording.

Pick on whatever you feel is inappropriate.

What does "change" mean to you, if the past and future all exist with no distinction?

“past and future” are distinctions that require a least a change in time.

Why do you assume or assert that it "must" change?

It is not an assumption is it is explicitly required for our notion of change that we represent with time.

That seems to imply some kind of movement along the time axis (t inexorably varies, whether or not x,y,z do). So what exactly is "moving" along that axis?

A point of reference that one might call “now”, no more special that any other point of reference that one might call “before”, “after”, “then” or even “here”.

My answer would be "the perception of 'now' is what 'must always change' ".
I don't see anything else which "must change".

“the perception of 'now'” can be the same but the point it refers to is different. The problem comes when you try to use “now” as an origin and it is then the relation to other points along a temporal axis that must change (the point at -4 sec has become the point at -5 sec and 4sec has become 3sec)


Maybe what I'm calling "now" is related the limits of our perception along the time domain (virtually nil at a given location).

To some extent, but you also seem to be ignoring the perception of others who might not agree with you about two events being simultaneous. Thus there is no way to physically define some universal “now”. Even though our own perceptions might lead us to think there should be one.


Hmmm. I've been asserting that in essence physics has no description of the concept for which we use the English word "now", in that there is no distinction in physics between any two points of time, one of which in English would be labeled "now" and one of which would be labeled "Another time".

Physics or more specifically mathematics has no problem with labeling some location “now” and some other "Another time". No more then it would have a problem labeling some point “0” and another point “5”.


I'm not sure if you are agreeing with that, or disagreeing. Are you disputing that there is any meaning of any sort whatsoever to the term "now", or are you saying it doesn't have a meaning within the framework of physics, are are you saying that the concept of "now" is actually well explained in physics?

What I’m specifically disagreeing with is your claim …

there's only one "now" shared by all of us.

Again the concept of “now” is no less well explained in physics as the concept of “here”, they are just locations on some particular axis. You are making a claim to very specific aspects of what you call “now” that there is “only one” and it’s “shared by all of us”. These are your assertions; you need to support them by physically defining them. Which is going to be difficult as the relativity of simultaneity directly refutes such assertions and definitions.



One option would be "the concept behind the English word "now" is meaningless in the world of physics, undefinable within that framework". That was pretty much my initial assertion. Are you agreeing?

Zeph

Once again “now” is no more indefinable within physics than “here” is, but “only one "now" shared by all of us” is specifically indefinable within physics because of the relativity of simultaneity. Again if you think not then physically define this “only one "now" shared by all of us”, if you can’t then you need to rethink your concept of “only one "now" shared by all of us”.
 
Now defines the instance in which things exist. Now is an instance of existence.
 
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You discussed stopping and reversing your time direction in the same breath in post 74. I'm going to come back to that in a bit, but in the above you are incorrect as well.

Thanks for the time you put into these explanations, and the ASCII art, Vorpal. Well done.

I still do not understand why one needs another (mixable) dimension in order to "rotate", unless one is rotating something which has a discrete extent. So I can understand "rotating a 1 cm directed line segment trapped in one dimension" being problematic, but I don't understand why one would need to rotate a dimensionless point.

Or if I can take it to another 1-space like voltage, I don't see why one would need to "rotate" a rising voltage through a v' dimension before one could produce a falling voltage.

But the velocity does not determine the length of that vector, since (Δt,Δx) represents the same velocity as, say, (2Δt,2Δx), as (2Δx)/(2Δt) = Δx/Δt.

I did not follow why spatial velocity (ds/dt) suddenly entered your chain of argument, or why it relevant.

So you can indeed affect this just by accelerating. Can you turn around completely, i.e., the go backwards in time? Well, no; just as in Euclidean geometry, rotation traces out a circle, here it traces out the curve τ² = t² - x², which is a hyperbola.

What is the "thing" which traces out a hyperbola? The only antecedent I can find it "rotation".

Unfortunately, I can't draw good diagrams in ASCII,

I thought you did rather well, actually! (But I take your point that more complex diagram exceed the tool).

The second point was that if you can't turn around by actual rotations, then the only other way available to you is some kind of discrete "flip" in your time orientation: one moment you're going forward, the next backward without any any intermediate turning.

I'm still looking at this like, say, voltage. If there were some law of the universe that voltage (in some system) increased at a steady rate, and the only alternative to that rate was it's exact negation, the I could see that one might argue that voltage could never decrease because it would take an infinitely large change and there is no zero capatitance or inductance in this world. But the way voltage increases would "reverse" would be to slow the increase through and past a steady state in into a decreasing voltage. There would be no need for (1) rotation through another dimension, or (2) instantaneous discrete "flip".

I'm not just trying to be argumentative or repetitious, and I hesitate to respond for fear of seeming like somebody who thinks inflexible repetition substitutes for reasoning. I appreciate your description of rotation, I'm just not yet seeing how you've made a case that rotation is needed.

My assertion (for the basis of discussion, not because I know it's true) was that time is quite unlike space in that we have no control over our movement in time. I do agree that this is not true in the most absolute sense, as we can very slightly slow or speed it in very limited ways with relativistic acceleration or velocity (our "now" is very tightly constrained, albeit with these limited exceptions). These are still radically different from the freedom of movement we have in space (our here can move freely in any direction without such restriction - in fact, relativity constrains the maximum rather than being needed to show even a slight effect).

Thanks,
Zeph
 
Once again “now” is no more indefinable within physics than “here” is, but “only one "now" shared by all of us” is specifically indefinable within physics because of the relativity of simultaneity.

It has been interesting to see the responses here. One group of mostly brief responses has emphasized variations on "now" as the gap or transition between the past and the future, without any reference to physics.

The other group has described physics without really touching upon the meaning of "now" which the other group references.

When you say that "now" is no more undefinable within physics than "here" is, I do not believe you mean the same thing by "now" as the other group of posters do. For some suitable definition of "now", I would easily agree with you that it's no different than "here". The point here is that science appears to need to limit itself to such a limited concept of "now" in order to cope with it.

It appears to me that you are in effect saying that physics has no conception of "now" which is any richer or more meaningful than it's description of "here". That's an answer, and yet it's not going to satisfy those whose experience (or subjective illusion) of the universe is that the edge between the past and the future is not conceptually isomorphic with, say, x=10 as an arbitrary location.

Thanks for the thoughtful comments, though.

Regards, Zeph
 
Physics is not meant to tell you why you have the particular experiences you do. It's a a framework built from generalizations of many peoples' experiences (which they have to take as given) that is meant to predict what will happen according to any person's experience. It needs to be valid everywhere in space and at all times and formulated in such a way that it does not manifestly depend on time or location.

Physics is not metaphysics. It can tell you how to measure time and [quantitative, objective aspects of] temporal things, and can also tell you enough about the evolution of physical things in time that it constrains tenable metaphysics (e.g. there is no global present), but it cannot define what is "meant" by temporality or how it relates to experience. That's a philosophical issue.
 
When does one make that decision? What makes you imagine that this "decision" thing can affect the future (is the river of time frozen or not?) Or to be (slightly) more precise, at what point in time does the power to make a decision occur (do we have a name for the point of transition between a changeable future and an unchangeable past)?

I wouldn't really want to veer off into a deeper discussion of the semantics of causes and effects, because I suspect it would lead to a lengthy and complicated debate, which would be off-topic here anyway - if you want to discuss these things, it would probably be better if you started a new thread specifically about causality. Here, I'll simply assume that we have a roughly compatible understanding of what we mean by causes and effects.

Any cause or decision is an event that occurs at some time T; consequences of that particular cause can only occur at a time > T, but of course consequences of other causes (that occurred earlier than T) may precede T. Causes occur independently at many different times, so there is no universally shared point of transition between a changeable future and an unchangeable past; the only "transition" is determined specifically by the event itself (its time T) and is irrelevant to other events that occur at different times.

(This of course assumes that entropy is not maximized - if it were, causes and effects would be interchangeable and time would lose its directionality in this regard - and that we're talking about the simplistic classical case.)
 
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It has been interesting to see the responses here. One group of mostly brief responses has emphasized variations on "now" as the gap or transition between the past and the future, without any reference to physics.

The other group has described physics without really touching upon the meaning of "now" which the other group references.

I have tried to do both, did you miss this part…

Again the concept of “now” is no less well explained in physics as the concept of “here”, they are just locations on some particular axis. You are making a claim to very specific aspects of what you call “now” that there is “only one” and it’s “shared by all of us”. These are your assertions; you need to support them by physically defining them. Which is going to be difficult as the relativity of simultaneity directly refutes such assertions and definitions.

?


When you say that "now" is no more undefinable within physics than "here" is, I do not believe you mean the same thing by "now" as the other group of posters do. For some suitable definition of "now", I would easily agree with you that it's no different than "here". The point here is that science appears to need to limit itself to such a limited concept of "now" in order to cope with it.

Well, I’ll leave it up to those ‘other posters’ to determine if their questions are being addressed or seek to some redress on their own in that regard. “limited concept of "now"”, what the heck are you talking about? “Now” could be any point on a temporal axis. You’re the one trying to limit “now” to “only one "now" shared by all of us”, but evidently you still can’t physically define such a limited “now”.


It appears to me that you are in effect saying that physics has no conception of "now" which is any richer or more meaningful than it's description of "here". That's an answer, and yet it's not going to satisfy those whose experience (or subjective illusion) of the universe is that the edge between the past and the future is not conceptually isomorphic with, say, x=10 as an arbitrary location.

Thanks for the thoughtful comments, though.

Regards, Zeph

Who cares whom “it's not going to satisfy”? If the last 100 years of physics has show us anything it is definitively that physics is ill severed by our human perceptions, intuition and/or satisfaction.

Also you left off a critical part of what you did quote from my pervious post.

Again if you think not then physically define this “only one "now" shared by all of us”, if you can’t then you need to rethink your concept of “only one "now" shared by all of us”.

You need to address this issue to demonstrate that your remarks are indeed thoughtful.
 
I can understand time as a ratio of motion. We use time to describe how much some object has moved relative to how much some other object has moved.
 

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