And is this an important distinction to the indigenous population being colonized? Every example of European colonization was different than every other. But just in case there is any doubt, I agree, you are right, the colonization of Israel by European Jews was not done under the banner of a European nation.
You have not made a case that the term colonization is relevant here. (See also below.) What you are essentially doing is just asserting that this is so without actually providing reasons. I do not find this convincing.
I think moving into a land in a significant numbers, setting up governmental and quasi governmental organizations, working to segregate the immigrant population from the indigenous population are all characteristics that justify describing the movement of European Jews into the area known as Israel today as colonial.
No. Far from it. A colonial movement would have used the governmental institutions of its "home country", not construct its own.
The Jews built various institutions because they wanted self determination - that is to govern themselves. I may add that at the time there were no other alternatives for many of these institutions so it was either building these or having none. What I am left with is that for you "Jewish self determination = colonialism". Really?
Lastly, what do you mean by "working to segregate the immigrant population from the indigenous population"? Jews settled in places where they could buy land. In some they had many contacts with neighboring Arabs. In others less. As a whole, the main determining factor was the attitude of the Arabs to their neighbors. For instance, places such as Haifa and Abu Gosh had fairly amicable relations.
Perhaps you mean that there was a movement to encourage Jewish labor. In any case that had more to do with a rebellion against aspect of Jewish life in Europe than anything to do with Jewish-Arab relations.
In addition, setting up settlements outside Israel onto land recognized as not-Israel by almost every country in the world is reasonably characterized as colonial.
Are you trying to claim that actions taken in the 70's and 80's somehow are relevant to the pre 1948 British mandate? There is such a thing as causality.
As an aside, it seems that a few things have remained consistent in this thread with all other Israeli/Palestinian threads.
1. Israeli partisans fail to acknowledge that enormous harm came to many Palestinians as a result of a giant foreign immigration that they did not want and did not approve.
2. Repeated claims that the Palestinians or Arabs started wars with Israel without for a second noting that the resistance of foreign immigration is pretty much an accepted right of indigenous populations.
3. The ostensible topic will not be discussed because the real purpose of the topic put forth is to provide a platform to denigrate Palestinians and justify Israeli actions against them.
This is a huge strawman, for several reasons.
i) Thinking that the term colonialism does not apply is not the same as failing to acknowledge that some Palestinians were hurt during as a result of said immigration.
Furthermore, you have not actually stated what being hurt consists of. Living in a state were you are the minority is one such type, which does not seem to me to be that bad, if the state tries to give equal rights. As it happens, many Palestinians suffered more, but that resulted from rejecting a compromise and initiating a war instead.
ii) What does this accepted right of resistance actually mean? Does it include the right to murder? The right to start a war aiming to forcibly drive all the immigrants away?
iii) Not sure what you mean here, but it seems to me that you claim that people arguing with you are not doing so in good faith. Is this true? (I can assure you that this is not true in my case.)
Finally, you seem to be judging the immigrating Jews. Lets assume that I am a Jew in 1934 Germany or in Poland. I am concerned for my safety, due to an avalanche of anti Jewish hatred. What do you think I should do?