The analyses for which the tests are robust are not those we are concerned about. We are concerned with how each baseline is generated for each participant, not with the data collected from all the participants. The number of observations are those which go into each individual data point. In the case of the first experiment, it will be "12" or "18". In the case of the last experiment, it may be "1".
Linda
Most of the time the baserates are chance, definately for experiment 8 & 9. (though I think there are other issues in those experiments)
Right. But this is the third week in a row I've won money on the lottery.
There is a difference between what
might happen and what
has happened.
But the claim is that the statistics / method was wrong.
I am not trying to be an ass, but a lot of people here claim that the method is wrong, or that he mixed and matched groups leading to sig. results.
I am not blind for some of the dodgy tricks he pulls, i.e., experiment 1 using 5 groups finding sig results for one and (probably) post-hoc rationalising it.
However, I fail to see the problems with most of the studies. Of course I agree that his theory is nonsense. At the same time though, I feel that people are dismissing his experiments here on the basis of ill-formed arguments.
Assuming that the psi-argument is nonsense, & assuming that the author is not intentionally lying; what can be said about the methods, which more reasonable explanation can account for the findings?
Since it is easy to complain and not contribute anything Ill just give my thoughts on the experiments themselves quickly:
experiment 1: no reasoning for the different effects of the different pictures. If rationalised post-hoc, the sig. goes up to .32(ish)
experiment 2: Even though Bem uses odd adjustments, without the adjustments he still finds sig. results. In all my ignorance I can not imagine any fault in the method that can lead to this.
Theorie-wise (if you can even talk about that) why do positive pictures all of a sudden work here?
experiment 3: Expectations / lay theories could lead to deviations from chance i think (though Im not 100% sure), that's all I have really I can not come up with more.
theory-wise: again why are both positive and negative grouped if the claim later in the paper is that people react to positive stuff?
experiment 4: see 3
(also the means are remarkably higher)
experiment 5: perhaps the random-generator is off?
theory-wise; why should positive work and neutral not?
(also noticed; everything he hopes is n.s. is all of a sudden tested two-tailed)
experiment 6: seems to me some sort of post-hoc rationalisation of the null-result or is there a reason Im missing why erotic should not work?
experiment 7: why a correlation with lower and not higher?
experiment 8: I really do not understand why the scoring system is so complicated, this makes me somewhat suspicious. I do not understand why raw scores could not have been used. However, the found result seems to be pretty large and the only way the scoring system could account for that is if Bem fished for results (breaking the assumption of him being an honost man

). More than that I can not find.
experiment 9: see 8
Yes, I remember another paper Paul posted here a few years ago. I don't remember if it was Bem's or not. But the test did not demonstrate any statistical effect, so he/they decided that there must be a negative psi effect, divided the data into groups that did better than average, groups that did worse than average, and showed 'statistical significance' on those subgroups!
That's basically all I'm seeing in this paper. Something doesn't show an effect, randomly change something, and claim success when this trial is positive. No going back to actually test whether factor X is actually an influence, no second experiment run to see if you can replicate the results, just off to the next inconclusive experiment with entirely different setup while claiming factor X does whatever you assumed it does. Oy vey.
Like above; can you point out where this happens because I just do not see it (cept for exp 1&6&7)
I personally do not believe Bems rationale, nor do I believe he has been outright lying. Furthermore, I do not like that he has fiddled with the data and the representation of his data but at the same time that is not enough to explain the findings. Therefore, there must be something wrong with the method. I just can not find it....