Basically, QM is about elementary particle (and molecules & atoms) being modellable as a wave , and their property described through a wave function. An observation in the physical term, is an interraction with the wave which provocate a collapse and enable one to read eigen value of the particle observed, for example energy level.
I am really summarizing here, but all woo pretending that the observer effect enable us to dostuff as human, are dead wrong, as QM has a specific definition of observing (interraction), and when we "observe" as human we don't interract with what we observe in any meaningful way.
I recommend to look on wiki on QM to get the basics.
Thanks, the wiki seems a bit too complicated for me to follow through but if I understand correctly, the gist is that every form of observation in the qm-sense is an interaction with the particle observed unlike human "observation", am I correct?
Okay. Parapsychologists generally seem to consider that they has been taken into account. When asked this question, they refer to a justification offered by Jessica Utts that it theoretically should not materially alter the results. The simple explanation is that though you may prefer to choose the right-facing target, and may do so on every trial, you should still only be right about half the time, as a random selection of targets will ensure that a right-facing target will only be selected about half the time. Yes, the variation expected from random sampling means that this 50-50 proportion is only a general tendency and that you will see usually see something a bit different from 50-50 and occasionally a lot different from 50-50. But this variation, and the probability of obtaining random targets which are a lot different from 50-50 and coincide with the choice of target by the subject, can presumably be described by the same distribution obtained by random sampling. Parapsychologists seem to consider this sufficient to mostly fail to take your concerns into account, and to occasionally attempt to see if they can discover this effect on post hoc analysis (as Bem attempts in this paper).
Now, I'm not sure that even theoretically this would work. When I've tried to play with this idea, it looks like this alters the variation so that the variance would no longer be accurately described by, for example, the binomial distribution, meaning that statements about expected probabilities based on a binomial distribution would be inaccurate. I haven't fully explored this though, so I may be wrong. And it is of little importance compared to the much bigger problem that it turns out in practice that the distribution of 'randomly selected' targets seems to be markedly different from the expected distribution. The few times we have been given the data on the distribution of targets, that distribution has been markedly different from chance. So we already suspect that statistical tests based on random sampling won't give us valid answers, regardless of whether they could in theory.
Linda
Bem has also used parametric tests, so binominal distribution is not an issue afaik. Even if the data-set was not binominal, the resulting skewness can be easily tested and corrected for. It should not alter the results much if at all, since Bem used a pretty large number of observations. (at least the studies Ive read up till now)
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Iow, in one experiment, you're given a list to study that includes "dog" and "cat". Then you're tested on how many words you can recall from the list. After this test, you're asked to write out certain words from the list. Bem's data seem to show that those (actually a subset of subjects, self-identified 'extraverts') asked to write out "dog" after the test were slightly better at recalling "dog" on the test; those asked to write out "cat" were slightly better at recalling "cat"; etc.