Context is king. "Classification of Diseases", probably has a long prolouge and description of what the usage is.
And then there is the dual nature of the classification.
AA Alfie provided his reasons for calling it a disease rather than a mental disorder, which was the fallacy I was responding too.
So I again ask because it also depends upon how you define the term disease, in the DSM-V and in the ICD 9/10 (used by WHO) it is characterized by the behavioral components and I can demonstrate that, it is a behavioral disorder under both those systems and not generally considered a 'disease' in the common sense.
So now you sling out the AMA, so how and why do they classify it the way that they do?
Or are you just using argument from authority?
Of course I'm arguing from authority, as neither of us are doctors. It's not a fallacy if you use a reputable authority (e.g., NASA to support a global warming claim).
Anyway, here's what AMA says:
H-95.983 Drug Dependencies as Diseases
The AMA:
endorses the proposition that drug dependencies, including alcoholism, are diseases
and that their treatment is a legitimate part of medical practice, and
encourages physicians, other health professionals, medical and other health related
organizations, and government and other policymakers to become more well informed
about drug dependencies, and to base their policies and activities on the recognition
that drug dependencies are, in fact, diseases. (Res. 113, A-87)
http://www.ama-assn.org/ama1/pub/upload/mm/388/statementuad.pdf
