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Evidence for why we know the New Testament writers told the truth.

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No matter what this would be ?

That's why I can't be in the military. I have an issue with following orders blindly.
At least in the military, you usually can see the person giving the orders, even if it's only on TV. With gunderscored, all you get is a puffed up weasel or some other "representative".


Remember folks, talking to gunderscored is called prayer; gunderscored talking to you is called schizophrenia.
 
At least in the military, you usually can see the person giving the orders, even if it's only on TV. With gunderscored, all you get is a puffed up weasel or some other "representative".


Remember folks, talking to gunderscored is called prayer; gunderscored talking to you is called schizophrenia.

Well at least ONE person stuck with my suggestion for god's name.
 
At least in the military, you usually can see the person giving the orders, even if it's only on TV. With gunderscored, all you get is a puffed up weasel or some other "representative".


Remember folks, talking to gunderscored is called prayer; gunderscored talking to you is called schizophrenia.


Well at least ONE person stuck with my suggestion for god's name.



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See how easily the servant of the Aten defeats that pathetic xtian thingy!

Mwahahahahaha!
 
Akhenaten, this is what our dear demon lord is refering to. It's well worht the reading of a five year old thread. Yes, Belz..., it's been five years since you made that suggestion.
 
Well I'll be funderscored. My education continues.

My little bit of HTML was based on the assumption that gunderscored was longhand for G.

Live and learn, eh?

Most of us.
 
Any evidence yet for why we know the NT writers told the truth?

And don't start counting your posts or naming presidents again! :mad:

Yes, in post 11054, and more will probably come out if the thread continues for another couple of months -- it seems to work that way in here because my reading goes on (outside of these threads) when I get the time for additional reading.
 
DOC, about Jesus' condoning the beating of slaves...

Helen (most recently, among others) explained succinctly why your quibbles on translation are irrelevant. Please address her points here.

Helen said:
You cannot determine the meaning of a word from a translation. If you need to make sure exactly what is meant, you must look at the original word. The translation is an approximation, at best. In this case, the word used in the original is doulos. That's what you have to work with, not your 9 translations. if you can find good reasons to suggest that doulos does mean servant, and not slave or bondservant, which most experts seem to agree on, then perhaps you may have a better argument.
 
Wow. What a way to show your true colors.

God approves of gang rape:

Genesis
19:5 And they called unto Lot, and said unto him, Where are the men which came in to thee this night? bring them out unto us, that we may know them.'

19:6 And Lot went out at the door unto them, and shut the door after him,

19:7 And said, I pray you, brethren, do not so wickedly.

19:8 Behold now, I have two daughters which have not known man; let me, I pray you, bring them out unto you, and do ye to them as is good in your eyes: only unto these men do nothing; for therefore came they under the shadow of my roof.


God approves of infanticide:

Psalms
137:9 Happy shall he be, that taketh and dasheth thy little ones against the stones.

Lot did the first action, and David was talking about the second one, Why are you saying God approves. Just because something is done in the bible doesn't mean God approves. I'll get to your other points in your lengthy post as time permits. And for the record this thread is about the NT not the old testament. If mankind was perfect and sinless in the OT Christ never would have needed to come.
 
Yes, in post 11054, and more will probably come out if the thread continues for another couple of months -- it seems to work that way in here because my reading goes on (outside of these threads) when I get the time for additional reading.


DOC, Post #11054 (which you appear unable to link to, for some strange reason) was nothing more than your most recent, albeit not recent at all, attempt to reintroduce the garbage you tried to pass off as evidence in the OP.

Over 11000 posts between two failed attempts to present the evidence you promised.

Just not going to happen, is it DOC?
 
Lot did the first action, and David was talking about the second one, Why are you saying God approves. Just because something is done in the bible doesn't mean God approves. I'll get to your other points in your lengthy post as time permits. And for the record this thread is about the NT not the old testament. If mankind was perfect and sinless in the OT Christ never would have needed to come.


What's your response to this post, DOC?
 
The strongest objection, however, is this: You cannot determine the meaning of a word from a translation. If you need to make sure exactly what is meant, you must look at the original word. The translation is an approximation, at best. In this case, the word used in the original is doulos. That's what you have to work with, not your 9 translations. if you can find good reasons to suggest that doulos does mean servant, and not slave or bondservant, which most experts seem to agree on, then perhaps you may have a better argument.

What is your source that most experts believe the word doulos as used in the gospels in reference to the Jewish culture of that time (not Greek culture) meant slave.

Do you consider the writers of those 9 translations non-experts?
 
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What is your source that most experts believe the word doulos as used in the gospels in reference to the Jewish culture of that time (not Greek culture) meant slave.

Do you consider the writers of those 9 translations non-experts?


It's irrelevant, DOC, and you know it.

RedHerring.jpg
 
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