Simon39759
Master Poster
- Joined
- Mar 4, 2009
- Messages
- 2,285
What looks to be fulfilled prophecy is evidence but I don't say certain prophecies are proof.
Because proof do not exist outside of math, as it has been explained to you many times, with words as small as possible. I wish I could draw...
A fulfilled prophecy would actually be a great bit of evidence for something supernatural going on but, then again, you'd have to get some MDC like conditions...
We would need to make sure that the prophecy existed before. In this case, it seems easy. Is it in the Old Testament? But, in reality, we have several instance where the Christians seem to have added stuff to the original text or (purposely or not) mistranslated it.
Ideally, the prophecy should be clearly be a messianic prophecy. The Jeremiah verse you write, when read in context, is NOT about Jesus at all. The whole apologetic really rely on THREE WORDS out of the whole page, the use of the term "jar", "potter" and "field"... Not very rare words either...
The prophecy should match perfectly, or at least really well. As mentioned before (and you did not apparently felt compelled to read this answer, illustrating your total dishonesty), none of the prophecy you brought up match the Jesus mythos to any significant level. One word here, one word there, one word that could kinda fit if you mistranslate it enough "if we just pretend this word means "pierced" and that "hands" actually mean "forearms"; then it matches. Sort off...
Really, none of the prophecies are impressive to any extend. You can stick your fingers in your hears and go "lalalala" all you want, they just don't fit very well and easily get dismembered in minutes...
When Hoku says this:
"Matthew, however, reads the original prophecy literally and invents rodeo Jesus where he is supposedly riding both animals (although I doubt at the same time)."
which I reply to in this post:
http://www.internationalskeptics.com/forums/showthread.php?postid=5717014#post5717014
she is implying she has proof to state this as a fact, which is not the case as I show in this post:
http://www.internationalskeptics.com/forums/showthread.php?postid=4618777#post4618777
Her statement is just a skeptic theory but not a proof (that discounts all other possibilities) as she implies.
And there you prove one more time you know nothing of the scientific method.
Let me ask, how do you know that the proof you'd have provided "discount all other possibilities"? How do you know that some smarty-pants is not going to come up with a new "possibility", that your proof not addressed by your proof?
This is the reason why science and method relying on the scientific method reject the term proof. And that's the reason, one can, at least provisionally, until proven otherwise, settle on the most likely conclusion and treat it as truth.
Sure, there might still be competitive hypothesis, some people still believe the earth is flat after all, but the most logical conclusion, that it is a spheroid is still treated as 'true'.
Similarly, one can jump through hoops and make up excuses for Matthew's error but, as shown earlier. The circumvoluted explanation is dumb and hypocritical and unconvincing. That Matthew was referring to Jeremiah and made a mistake is the simplest, best fitting, most logical hypothesis and should, and is, regarded as "truth" until proven otherwise (and good luck with that).
Too bad you don't read, or at least don't answer to, the longer posts, as there are the ones you might actually learn something from. Then again, learning something seems quite antithetical of your whole objective...
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