Waterman
Critical Thinker
- Joined
- Aug 5, 2008
- Messages
- 251
What logical fallacy do I commit when I ask DOC to consider why no current Harvard Law School professor uses the New Testament as a good example for textual evidence concerning factual happenings?
Others may correctme but I do think that this would fall under the 'absence of evidence is not evidence of absence'. To take a parallel from a recent UFO thread. The visual report is inconclusive, could have been a blimp they were known to be in the area report generally confrms to blimp on many points. Prove it was a blimp. I can't. Then it wasn't a blimp. Just because a Harvard Law Prof. hasn't written anything on the topic that we can put our hands on doesn't mean a Harvard Prof. doesn't have that opinion. At best it is a null, we don't know. Any conclusions are speculation.
