Even if true, this fact does not negate that the claim is falsifiable and scientific.
How's that? If there are temperatures which we will never be able to reach at which a metal could potentially (or not) melt, how would it be falsified?
Athon
Even if true, this fact does not negate that the claim is falsifiable and scientific.
I've studied history for the past 50 years. You want all that in one lump?
I wasn't saying if it isn't a theory it isn't science. I was saying if it isn't a theory, its an observation, then it doesn't have to be falsifiable (it doesn't make much sense to say an observation has been falsified anyway).Ah, I see your point. I guess I see more to science than just theories. To say it isn't science if it isn't a theory, again, seems like a useless categorisation. Even if it was an agreed definition, there is no particular point at which a hypothesis magically turns into a theory. It's a gradual slide over time (some ideas progress faster than others).
I wouldn't say this demonstrates something to be false, rather it just doesn't support its truth. I see a difference between an idea being wrong and there being no reason to think it's right.
If there are temperatures which we will never be able to reach at which a metal could potentially (or not) melt, how would it be falsified?
I'm inclined to agree that the statement is not falsifiable, but I think you're focusing too much on practicalities and ignoring the bigger picture. Whether or not we will be able to reach any given temperature is not the point in my opinion. Given sufficient time I see no reason why we could not reach any specific temperature, but that's irrelevant in an infinite universe because there will always be something higher. I do not see the non-falsifiability of the statement to be a result of our abilities, but rather a result of the unbounded nature of the idea itself.
I have often heard this "argument" that science is something that we just chose to believe; and it's just as much of a faith as religion. I'm sure you've heard it too. How do you deal with it? I get so annoyed at that "argument" that I usually get rude and sarcastic. But I wanted to know how I can counter that without being sarcastic. How can I construct a reasoned argument against that? Should I start from how axioms in maths and science are self-evident truths and belief in them is not even remotely close to belief in a religion.
Any help would be greatly appreciated.
No. I want enough evidence to support your claim that, historically speaking, violence that occurred was due to religion and not to culture. Certainly a history book isn't going to persuasively isolate the one value from the other; in fact, I'm not sure how to prove that one and not the other is responsible unless you can somehow produce societies with identical cultures but different religions and show that one was violent while the other wasn't.
But, the point was, you made a claim. I asked for evidence.
"History" is not a good answer.
Go on then. How does one falsify "Godidit"?
Everything that applies to Lambda-CDM theory applies to Iron Sun-Goddidit theory. See I can replace words with nonsense words alsoThe same way you expect to falsify "Inflation,DE and exotic matter did it".
Everything that applies to Lambda-CDM theory applies to Lambda-Goddidit theory.![]()
'visible, but you'll never be able to see it'
...(electromagnetic waves, an abominable creation of science!)...
Science does not assume a humane universe; and strives not impose any sort of humane interpretation on it, or expect an humane response from it.
On this point I disagree. I do think that science assumes a humane universe, and imposes a humane interpretation on it -- just in a different way than religion.
Science assumes a universe that is comprehensible, orderly, and consistent. There's no reason a priori that the universe has to be this way. But just as religion is useless if the universe does not respond to human demands, so science is useless if the universe does not conform to human logic. Both institutions make their assumptions out of necessity, but both assumptions are present.
phew, that was a tad windy, eh -- blobru eat now.I'm having trouble comprehending how this is even logically possible. But perhaps I'm not viewing the problem in the same way you are. Could you provide an example of how this might occur?
I cannot see how falsification can add weight to a theory, therefore, of it can only be theoretically falsified, but not practically. I can understand it would add value later, should that falsification become a practical possibility, but in the meantime it's a useless feature.
The same way you expect to falsify "Inflation,DE and exotic matter did it".
Everything that applies to Lambda-CDM theory applies to Lambda-Goddidit theory.![]()
As I understand it, Popper felt that completely non-falsifiable ideas (i.e. those which are not even logically falsifiable let alone practically so) have no potential for any scientific value.
I'd really need to see some evidence of this view. As I outlined earlier, Popper seemed (at least in my interpretation) to be quite clear on it being empirical and testable. Not 'in theory', or 'perhaps one day in the future', but actually an observation we could have in practical reality.On the other hand, ideas that are falsifiable (even if only logically so) do have a potential for scientific value.
Thus, while the latter may waste one's time, the former definitely will. It is the difference in potential between ideas that is useful.
When I first studied HPS many moons ago, I was a huge Popperian. Read what I could of his stuff and would defend falsification to the hilt. As I started to read other stuff - from Kuhn to Lakatos to Feyerabend to Sokal - I started to waver a little. The sticking point for me has been that there is a difference between how people feel science should work, and how it actually does.The validity of the above would seem to depend entirely upon the first part of the argument, that non-falsifiable ideas have no potential for scientific value. I've always agreed with Popper's opinion, however, I'm willing to explore alternative points of view.
With an infinite number of alternate hypotheses possible, does rejecting the null hypothesis at the (arbitrary selected) X% level make any one of the alternate hypotheses more likely than before the experiment was conducted?
I wouldn't call it an a priori belief as much as an economical assumption that has continued to work well. Parsimony might be an assumption, but why complicate a theory with assumptions if there are no observations to prompt us to?It seems to me that most if not all of science is conducted with the a priori belief that some hypotheses are (much) less likely to be true than others.
On this point I disagree. I do think that science assumes a humane universe, and imposes a humane interpretation on it -- just in a different way than religion. Science assumes a universe that is comprehensible, orderly, and consistent. There's no reason a priori that the universe has to be this way. But just as religion is useless if the universe does not respond to human demands, so science is useless if the universe does not conform to human logic. Both institutions make their assumptions out of necessity, but both assumptions are present.