Does it make any sense? Honestly, JFrankA? Not really. What possible intent could one reasonably have in creating a nude under-age model for non-sexual reasons? And if it's in a non-sexual situation, well then go back to the definition of "pornography" that I wrote above. Really, JFrankA, I do get the impression that you're just being pig-headed on this and losing objectivity.
Sorry, nudity doesn't equal intent to arouse.
If you've ever worked with Poser, the model starts off nude, then you add clothes later.
Your definition is "intent to arouse", now there is tons of media with that obvious intent, but how can you call a naked child photo an "intent to arouse" without knowing the picture, the scene and in what context?
In fact, how can this be considered child pornography if the subject isn't even a living, real human?
What do you mean by "child porn is to stop real children from being injured or molested."?!
The original intent of stopping child pornography was to stop children from being injured or molested. Now it's turned into something that even if two adults age play in an adult only environment or someone who has a naked, virtual under aged model on their computer, (again, not even a real human being), if one person can see it as an "intent to arouse" then those people can be punished as a "child pornographer" then we have gone beyond the original intent, in my humble opinion.
It's turned into a witch hunt.
(and no, not the law, just my humble opinion).
OK - sticking with child porn - please cite some real-life examples of "more or less sexually explicit" images of children that have been created other than to arouse that could not reasonably be deemed to have been created for sexual arousal purposes.
That's my point. I can point at something completely innocent and most people will say "no, there's no intent". But give one person who will look for intent, not because they are aroused by it, but because they are simply looking for it, then there's intent.
For example, (and I'm arguing about the ambiguity of "intent to arouse") how arousing is this picture? Do you think she did this on purpose with intent to arouse? If not, how do you know? And how do you know that since there wasn't enough people who complained about it enough to call it "intent to arouse" to make it so?
http://www.interestingillusions.com/img/cristie-kerr-trophy.jpg
Also, what about this picture?
http://knockedupcelebs.com/wp-content/uploads/2008/04/mileyanddad.jpg
This was a big contrivesy. I think the pic is harmless, and at first so did Miley and her dad. However, enough people saw something sexual in it that made Miley and her dad eventually apologize for this pic.
There was no intent to arouse on their part, yet enough people saw intent so that there was.
Now I ask you, how does one actually know intent?
Accused by whom? Under what specific circumstances?
There have been times when people have been accused of murder when they were 10,000km away at the time. What's your point, JFrankA, that doesn't apply generally?
Murder can be disproven with facts, testing and alibis. Not so easy with interpretations and opinions. This thread should show that point.