I am going to make a statement here that may be interpreted as a concession, but it is not, really. I think that most of the smarties here will probably agree with me that there is not a shred of evidence that the Nazi-regime had a homicidal policy towards the Jews from the start in the 1920's. They just wanted to get rid of them. I have seen links that people like Eichmann even visited Palestine in 193x in order to try to arrange for the Jews to go there. Another possible Final Destination considered was Madagasqar. Uzzy seems to suggest to go along with that diagnosis for the moment. Then he mentions Stalingrad. The Germans lost the battle for Stalingrad, feb 1943. With hindsight many see that as the turning point of the war, although Stalingrad is situated at the Wolga, way beyond the Ukraine, as far eastern as Tiblisi, Georgia. So a German loss was not even certain at that time and hence no incentive for changing German policy (expulsion) was present. However, if that was German policy indeed, than I cannot rule out as a theoretical possibility that from the moment on that a German defeat became clear to the leadership that a change of policy happened and that they started to exterminate the Jews they had in their custody. Pure from the logic of the situation: "OK, we are going to lose the war you inflicted on us, but we are going to take you with us in the grave". And it is up to you to prove that these exterminations happened, if you think they did happen. But I am rather certain that nothing of the sort happened until at least the first months of 1943, as long as the Germans were in the 'winning mood'.