I have demanded proof repeatedly that anyone feels they are so superior that they can claim the right to govern their fellow man without the consent of their fellow man and no one has ever accepted that challenge. You ask for court proof, but this knowledge when used properly means you never go to court. So if that is the case, why would there be transcripts of something that was avoided and did not happen? So I have done my best to answer your questions without evasion even though they were clearly pointed. So now it is my turn.
Hello! You may have spotted my posts dotted through this thread. Picking up where 'Especially' left off...
Especially has made claims that the 16th Amendment of The Constitution of The United States (the one legalising federal tax) was only ratified by 2 states. I did request that s/he provided evidence, but none was provided at the time. I would also like to ask as to whether you second his/her stance about the European Union being part of a conspiracy theory towards a one world government (commonly but confusingly labelled as 'New World Order'), and whether such views are relatively common within the Freeman Movement or whether these are the beliefs of just one individual. In response to your post above, I do admit being rather confused over the ethos of the Freeman Movement. I am looking for an 'official' view that the Freeman Movement takes. I understand your belief that Statutes of Parliament by definition require the consent of the governed, but not why this is interpreted as the consent of the governed individual, instead of the governed public (as represented by Members of Parliament). I do not understand how one declares consent to a statute as an individual (and I'd imagine this quite important), nor how one could, in a court of law, present the philosophy of the Freeman Movement as a legal defense. I was also under the impression that an agreement of consent to the statutes was given on your behalf with both
a) Your entry and permit to remain in the country(such as a visa)
b) Your citizenship
I also hold concern that some more malignant characters may use the Freeman Movement as a legal excuse for a bail out. For example, clause 54 of the Magna Carta of England states that no testimony of a woman can be held against a man unless that woman is the man's wife. This part of the Magna Carta has been repealed, along with most of the rest of it, but if The Freeman Philosophy were to stand in court, then I would imagine that quite a few cases of rape would be thrown out on account of that clause, which would be a terrible miscarriage of justice. How would the Freeman Movement account for this? How does it justify basing a legal defense on The Magan Carta, most of which has been repealed, and was originally created for a monarchy in which women and several minorities were treated unjustly? And if The Freeman Movement does not base itself on the Magna Carta, (as Especially had implied), then upon what, exactly, does it base itself? What would be defined as the Common Law of England?
Bear in mind that equality is paramount, and when abandoned you lose.
You say all humans are persons. However I have seen many definitions where the exact opposite is expressed. In Blacks 3rd it states "a human being is not a person because he is a human being but because rights and duties have been ascribed to him, specifically the person is that legal subject or substance of which the rights and duties are attributes. But not all human beings are persons, as was the case in Olde England when there were slaves." So here we have a law dictionary clearly stating the opposite of your position, that being all human beings are persons. Now lets test it by examining it under the light of EQUALITY. Since the person is a result of rights and duties being ascribed to a human being, and we are equal, then who has the power to ascribe rights and duties to me to make me qualify as a person? You certainly do not, nor do your representatives. Logic will show that only we have the power to assign rights and duties, and although a group can agree on what those may be, that agreement does not affect those not a party to it. You may have agreed that the people in government and the courts have the power to define your rights. That is your right. I however do not allow others to ascribe rights and duties to me, for I do that myself. That too is my right. You don't like it too bad. Find someone, anyone willing to claim that they have the right to either govern me without my consent, or that their elected representatives may do so, or even that they have the power to provide adjudication services without consent. Or that they can punish me in any way for refusing to agree and accept their claim to authority. You will not find one in Canada. Additionally in the Criminal Code you will find that there are certain sections dealing with common law crimes such as murder where the term 'any one' is used and things like growing pot they use the term 'any person who'. If every one was a person automatically why the difference?
I don't see what you are saying here. You claim that a person is only a human being that has been ascribed rights and duties. Yet claim that not all human beings are people. In what way would the Human Rights as documented by the United Nations in 1947 not qualify as rights ascribed to a human being? Or,for that matter, citizenship to your country? As a British citizen, you automatically recieve the legal right to free healthcare on the NHS. As part of your duties as a citizen, you must abide by the criminal laws layed out by the Government. Under the light of equality... all citizens share the same basic rights. Extra privileges are earned. The only difference between a privilege and a right is that a privilege can be taken away again. The privileges of running the country are given to one individual by the public. This individual, now with the privilege of authority, can decide on laws passed, international stance, etcetera, etcetera. This is how democracy works. Wherever you can see a change of power, this is a redistribution of privileges to individuals, as power is a privilege by its very nature. Politics is debate over the awarding of power. And every human being is a person. No, I wasn't calling Human Rights a privilege, just in case this is what you have read. I made a very distinct differentiation between power and right. To reiterate:I have stated that power can be legally taken away. Rights cannot. Every human being is subject to human rights, thus every human being is a person to which these legal human rights are attributed.This also goes the same for citizenship.By holding citizenship status you consent to abiding by criminal law of the country of which you are a citizen.
Apologies for being overcautious, but I did want to be quite clear as to what I was saying so that I may not be mistaken. In doing so I might have sounded slightly condescending or aggravated, and if that is the case then apologies again, for I didn't intend it.
Now if I could share links here I would, and you would see a short report (a video document or affidavit if you) will, attesting to the fact that a man was exercising his right to travel, was stopped by the police, used knowledge (that which the ignorant here refer to as 'magic words') and when all was said and done went on his way without charges, and is now regularly traveling without permit or license. Not sure how to post the link though and was informed last time that I can't post a link until I post more replies first. But it is there. My channel is mrmitee and I have a response to the video I was referring to, and you can follow the link to hear the guy recount his story in the public arena. My response is titled humorously enough RESPONSE
Which website? Youtube?
There are many who demand proof and expect that since I believe in something, and share those beliefs with the world I have a duty to provide them with 'proof'. I don't see that. When you demand proof you are actually asking I educate you for free. I believe what I believe, and act upon what I believe in, and have no desire really to convince those who seem happy to reject this information and call it 'woo'. I believe what I believe because I invested tens of thousands of hours studying law and have found many truths that are often rejected outright by those who have never even read the Acts I refer to. Having read the Motor Vehicle Act I know there is nothing in there that removes the previously existing rights. But those who do have a license, but did not read the Act will claim I am at fault, cause everybody knows we all needs licenses to drive, and if you try to teach them to distinguish between the two, they call it word play. It is like telling someone there is a difference between the words 'their' and 'there' and they claim that pointing out the difference is 'word play'. It is not word play, it is law, and some wish to dismiss these concepts as word play or wishful thinking.
Well have a great day! Will answer more questions and duck barbs later.
Rob
There is a great deal of misunderstanding here. I should think that many of the other people on this thread expected you to take the place of Especially. What we ask, is that while we respect your beliefs, we will not take the 'leap of faith' and start believing what you believe without proof. Or at the very least, solid hard evidence. Especially had taken up this post in trying to convince us towards the Freeman Movement. Now its your move. What do you want to do? Meanwhile, if you have a read again of the Motoring Act, it is in fact illegal to drive without a license in Canada. The reference placed by your government did indeed observe that Section 94 (2) of the British Columbian Motor Vehicles Act is in fact inconsistent with fundamental justice, but Section 94 (2) only regarded the absolute liability offence normally placed. The requirement of a license comes under Section 94 (1). And so, if stopped without a valid license, you may claim no knowledge to the suspension of your license or the lack of license, but you are still breaking the law.