Beth
Philosopher
- Joined
- Dec 6, 2004
- Messages
- 5,598
Err... is there a reason you did not answer the first question????
Is that probability identical too?
Sorry, I didn't realize you wanted an answer to that one too
Beth
Err... is there a reason you did not answer the first question????
Is that probability identical too?
In the beginning, there was nothing. In fact, this beginning is not described by the time vector of the current universe. This beginning is timelessness, a void, with nothing, absolute nada. Then, suddenly, spawned a creation of matter and gas.
For the matter and gas, space and time to unfold, the wave function of quantum mechanics dictates that the universe had to choose the initial conditions from an infinite amount of choices [1]. In effect, the wave function had smeared all the possible universes which could arise in the universe, and fundamentally dictating any of the events which so occured afterwards. This means our very chances of standing here on earth, as thought lit upon a magicians darkened stage, and we ponder mindlessly about the foundations in which we can inexorably observe.
Interestingly, the wave function did not provide a finite amount of solutions from a Copenhagen Point of View. The universe had to choose from an infinite amount of possible universes, so the chances of any universe being observable would actually infer 1 in an infinite amount.
[1] - F. A Wolf. Parallel Universes; The Search for Other Worlds.
Answer the question, yes or no.
Do you believe that it would be possible for us to observe a universe(the one we live in), with fundamental constants that never allowed life to form, barring our own existence.
It implies that this universe didn't exist. Whether any other universes existed then or now is unknown.I don't think you read my first explanation, so I am not sure how saying it again would help.
If you say the universe came into being, then this implies, doesn't it, that before the universe began there was no universe?
I don't know. I suppose it depends on what else might have been around. I'm sorry I didn't understand your first explanation, but I would appreciate if you could give it another try.So tell me - was there time before time began? If not, then was there a "before" the universe began?
No, as that would be an oxymoron... a paradox of sorts.
Then you why did you argue with my statement that the probability of us observing a universe which allowed life to exist, given the condition that we do in fact exist, is 1?
I'm confused. You are a confusing fella.
I don't know if they are all possible. As near as I can tell, no one does. Apparently, the physicists who create such models know of no reason why they would not all be possible. However, out of all the possible parameter values, only a very few result in universes like ours. The remaining universes are very similar and, if you presume many universes, far more common that universes like ours. That isn't a contradiction, nor am I saying "OMG, it's a miracle!". I'm saying that according to the smartest physicists on the planet, it appears that a universe like ours is very unlikely to have occurred by random chance and therefore, it's reasonable to consider other possibilities.You're missing my point. The "contradiction" is that on the one hand you are saying "any of these outcomes is possible" and then whatever outcome actually happens you're saying "OMG, it's a miracle! Out of all the possible outcomes, it was this one!!!!"
Either you think they are all possible, or you don't. If they're all possible, why the surprise that one of the many possible outcomes occurred? Where, in other words, is the evidence of "fine tuning"?
I don't think so. It seems to me that it's the multiverse hypothesis that assumes things could just have easily been otherwise and ours is just the one that randomly happened to have those parameters. The fine-tuning argument assumes that they were deliberately set or chosen in order to achieve this sort of universe. It does assume that they could have been chosen differently.If the "fine tuning" argument is to mean anything AT ALL, however, it requires that the physical parameters of this universe not be intrinsically necessary. If they are intrinsically necessary then there's no "fine tuning"": there simply is "the way things have to be." So, it's the "fine tuning" argument that requires the assumption that things could just as easily have been otherwise in order for there to be surprise and amazement that they happened to turn out this way.
Because turning out this particular way is very very rare. Generally, things that are rare are interesting and often they are something to get excited about.So, ex hypothesi, the fine tuning argument says "our universe turned out in one of many, many, many possible ways." Great; but presumably it had to turn out in some way, right? So why should I be excited about the fact that it is this way.
For that particular sequence, yes. However, if you merely specify five ones, three twos, three threes, three fours, two fives and four sixes rather than the exact sequence, the probability of getting it is much higher than that of getting 20 6's. If you get a result similar to the one you specified, are you going to scratch your head and wonder whether the dice were loaded the way you would if you got 20 sixes in row?Here's what you're not seeing about the 20-dice analogy. Every single possible throw of 20 dice is equally improbable. If I throw 20 dice and get
1,3,6,4,2,6,1,6,5,4,3,2,5,2,3,4,6,1,1,1--that's just as unlikely as 6,6,6, etc.
The same reason you'd find it interesting if you threw a dice 20 times and they were all sixes versus throwing the sequence you specified above. One is similar to what would be expected, even though unlikely to be exactly predicted. The other is reason to suspect there is something going one with the dice that causes that particular outcome.The error that the "fine tuning" people make is that they start from the assumption that there's something particularly "interesting" about an outcome in which we happen to end up evolving and then ask "what are the odds"??? That's like starting from the requirement that the dice come up 20x6. But what reason do we have for thinking there's anything so "interesting" about an outcome in which we end up to ask about that outcome?
Apparently, the parameter values that result in a universe like ours are very rare. The vast majority end up quite differently and unable to form any type of structure.Again, if every single possible universe is "wildly improbable," then what makes the one we've got different from any other one? Where's the evidence of "fine tuning."
And so you would agree, wouldn't you that 1 in six is not the same as 0.9739?Sorry, I didn't realize you wanted an answer to that one too. It's one out of six.
Beth
As to the improbability of life existing, how can you make a statistical argument about what is unknown?
If you vary the cosmological constant by what factor?
If you vary the EM field by what factor?
We can not say what variability there would be in the constants of the universe.
It is factors of hundred, one or fractions of one.
How many states are there between 1.1 and 1.2, if you adjust by .1 then 1, if by .01 then 10, by .001 then a hundred and so on, in an unknown state you CAN NOT give the probability for how 'finely tuned' the constants are becuase you have no idea what they could vary by.
penrose sattes that the possible outcomes og the universe was something like 10^10^123 and then concludes that this means the universe is improbable. And so is a single atom of hydrogen, out of ~10^80 partciles what are the odds of a single atom of hydrogen. If you randomly get one 1/10^80, but if it is already the one you have in a jar, then it is 1/1.
The universe may have had 10^10^123 possible states, but we know nothing about them or what properties they have had, so you can say NOTHING about the probability of life arising in one of them.
But you are quite confident, are you, that there was time before time began?It implies that this universe didn't exist. Whether any other universes existed then or now is unknown.
Again, I am not quite sure what it is that you didn't understand.I don't know. I suppose it depends on what else might have been around. I'm sorry I didn't understand your first explanation, but I would appreciate if you could give it another try.
I don't get what you don't get about that.
the probability of an event that has happened is 1.
In the case of the universe, the occurance of the universe is 1, the number of known universes is 1, so we divide the number of existing universes by the number of known universes and we get 1.
As to the improbability of life existing, how can you make a statistical argument about what is unknown?
If you vary the cosmological constant by what factor?
If you vary the EM field by what factor?
We can not say what variability there would be in the constants of the universe.
It is factors of hundred, one or fractions of one.
How many states are there between 1.1 and 1.2, if you adjust by .1 then 1, if by .01 then 10, by .001 then a hundred and so on, in an unknown state you CAN NOT give the probability for how 'finely tuned' the constants are becuase you have no idea what they could vary by.
penrose sattes that the possible outcomes og the universe was something like 10^10^123 and then concludes that this means the universe is improbable. And so is a single atom of hydrogen, out of ~10^80 partciles what are the odds of a single atom of hydrogen. If you randomly get one 1/10^80, but if it is already the one you have in a jar, then it is 1/1.
The universe may have had 10^10^123 possible states, but we know nothing about them or what properties they have had, so you can say NOTHING about the probability of life arising in one of them.
we are sure we cannot be far off.
I consider Tipler to be a nutcase.According to Frank J Tipler, the ultimate goal of the Anthropic arguement is to proove the strong arguement.
YesAnd so you would agree, wouldn't you that 1 in six is not the same as 0.9739 wouldn't you?
No. That I understand. I was asking why you wanted to the know the probability of getting at least one 6 out of twenty throws of the same dice or one throw of twenty dice. Those are the same.And yet you ask why stipulating the number of attempts and the number of agents is necessary to the probability argument.
Depends. I'm generally not much of a gambler, but if the details of the bet are specified and the odds were in my favor, I might. On the other hand, the only person likely to offer me a bet like that is someone who is probably trying to cheat me out of my money, so I might pass even so.So suppose someone says: "Give me twenty dollars and if I don't roll a six on a die I will give you ten thousand dollars"
So would you take the bet? Suppose some trusted person could act as guarantor?
I'd be willing to let him have two or three throws at those odds.Would you think it unnecessary for him to stipulate that the six must be off the first roll?
That would be my expectation. If he wanted more, yes, I would want to know how many and how many throws he wanted to take.Would you think it unnecessary for him to stipulate that he throw only one die?
It would be necessary if he wanted something other than one throw with one die, as that would the expectation from your phrasing above.Would you think it necessary that he only stipulate one of the above conditions?
I'd want to examine the die too.Or would you have to ask him to stipulate both in order to get the 1 in 6 odds that you were expecting?
I agree. We can only talk about the probabilities in regard to our various models of the universe and the what the possible parameters are for those. The physicists build models trying to use as few rules and set as few parameters as possible. We can examine the models they have and determine what percentage of universes produced by such models are like ours. The answer is almost none. They only get universes like ours when they fine-tune many different parameters.The same principle applies with the cause of the universe - the probability argument will not be valid if the cause has produced countless other universes. And the probability argument will not be valid if the cause is an entity among many like entities all producing universes.
I get all that fine. What I don't understand is what you mean by "contingent" in your OP. What does your definition of contingent have to do with the probabilities you're talking about here?I don't get what you don't get about that.
I consider Tipler to be a nutcase.
I'm just sayin'.
I don't know if they are all possible. As near as I can tell, no one does. Apparently, the physicists who create such models know of no reason why they would not all be possible. However, out of all the possible parameter values, only a very few result in universes like ours. The remaining universes are very similar and, if you presume many universes, far more common that universes like ours. That isn't a contradiction, nor am I saying "OMG, it's a miracle!". I'm saying that according to the smartest physicists on the planet, it appears that a universe like ours is very unlikely to have occurred by random chance and therefore, it's reasonable to consider other possibilities.
Exactly; if they could have been chosen differently, then they could have just as easily been otherwise. If they could not have been otherwise then there was no "choice" involved and therefore no "fine tuning." This is not a complicated or difficult point.I don't think so. It seems to me that it's the multiverse hypothesis that assumes things could just have easily been otherwise and ours is just the one that randomly happened to have those parameters. The fine-tuning argument assumes that they were deliberately set or chosen in order to achieve this sort of universe. It does assume that they could have been chosen differently.
But, again, ex hypothesi turning out any way is "very very very rare." Why am I more struck by the "fine tuning" of this way than I should be by the "fine tuning" of a universe in which, say, gravity was twice as strong, or 3.4 times as strong, or 1.987 times as strong? "Gosh, of all the infinite setting it could have had, it got that one!"Because turning out this particular way is very very rare. Generally, things that are rare are interesting and often they are something to get excited about.
But now you're cheating (and revealing the cheat in your initial position). You are starting from the assumption that there's something particularly wonderful about a universe that ends up with us in it (your "all 6's" one). But, again, every single possible result of a cast of 20 dice is equally 'improbable.' That's simply a fact.For that particular sequence, yes. However, if you merely specify five ones, three twos, three threes, three fours, two fives and four sixes rather than the exact sequence, the probability of getting it is much higher than that of getting 20 6's. If you get a result similar to the one you specified, are you going to scratch your head and wonder whether the dice were loaded the way you would if you got 20 sixes in row?
ETA: This REALLY shows your anthropic bias. Why is 1,4,5,2,6...any more "what would be expected" than 6,6,6,6,6,....? That's the classic lottery-ticket blunder: the idea that the sequence 1,2,3,4,5,6 is less likely to turn up than something that looks more "random" because most lottery results "look random." Surely you understand why that's an error, don't you? The universe we can't live in with parameter x=1 is exactly as improbable or probable as the universe we can't live in with parameter x=1.1 and exactly as improbable or probable as the universe we can live in which happens to have parameter x=1.2. If that's not the case, then our parameters aren't arbitrary and there's not "fine tuning" argument to be made. /ETAThe same reason you'd find it interesting if you threw a dice 20 times and they were all sixes versus throwing the sequence you specified above. One is similar to what would be expected, even though unlikely to be exactly predicted. The other is reason to suspect there is something going one with the dice that causes that particular outcome.
And, again, so? If the universe had turned out not to be able to maintain any type of structure and with its parameters set at x=1,y=2,z=3...., that's no more and no less improbable (ex hypothesi) than a universe unable to maintain any type of structure with its parameters set at x=1.1, y=2.2, z=3.3 etc. That's no more or no less improbable than a universe with it's parameters set at x=1.3, y=2.3, z=3.3 etc. etc.Apparently, the parameter values that result in a universe like ours are very rare. The vast majority end up quite differently and unable to form any type of structure.