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McCoin Last Thread

Only if earth is on the other side of the event horizon created by acceleration, which makes this conclusion both unmeasurable and irrelevant for that observer.



Again, it's on the other side of the event horizon, so it's meaningless.



And this statement is just plain wrong.

This is great. I hve been though this "Event Horizon" mathematical arguement and it is crap.

1 - It is based on the assumptions being challenged in the first place.

2 - It merely side steps the issue by claiming the FTL consequences aren't "Seen" not that they don't exist. According to your pet theory FTL is prohibited but tuck in you face as a consequence of your own theory you want to claim "That is OK we don't see it". LOL:jaw-dropp
 
This is great. I hve been though this "Event Horizon" mathematical arguement and it is crap.

1 - It is based on the assumptions being challenged in the first place.

So is your objection. You don't like one of the consequences of relativity, but you can't ignore other consequences: it's a package deal, and if that second consequence solves the problem of the first consequence, then you're left without an objection. Yes, this is not proof that the model is correct, but it does demonstrate that the results you object to are not, in fact, a problem at all.

2 - It merely side steps the issue by claiming the FTL consequences aren't "Seen" not that they don't exist. According to your pet theory FTL is prohibited

No. FTL is only prohibited in inertial frames. There are restrictions even in non-inertial frames, but they are more complicated and different from the restrictions in inertial frames. You still don't get the difference between inertial and non-inertial reference frames. You don't even get that distinction in Newtonian physics.
 
Just more rehtorical babble. You cannot switch frames without accelerating.

An inertial frame of reference is just a viewpoint. Just like looking at a house from the east vs from the north.

Get over it. The Frame Switching lable is just a word game to not acknowledge an absolute change in velocity as a basis of generating relative velocity.

I'm sorry, if I'm imagining what the house will look like from the east, to then switch to imagining what it would look like from the north, I actually have to move? Similarly, to imagine what it would be like to watch a horse race, and then switch to imagining what it would be like to be on the horse, I have to physically accelerate?

Relative velocity is always to the inertail rest frame and not to any other objects in the universe.

The inertial reference frame chosen to do calculations doesn't even need to coincide with any objects in the universe, you can pick any one. Second, if there is some master inertial reference frame we must use to calculate things, can you give us this frame. What is the Earth's velocity relative to it?

That is a universal ABSOLUTE energy system not relative velocity between clocks system.

You are using terms that I've asked you to define but you have refused to define. You must understand that since I have previously asked you to define these terms, I won't understand what you are saying until you define them. Its like you don't care if you are actually communicating any usable information.

energy system
absolute energy system
universal energy system
universal absolute energy system
 
My only point was that your rush to state "The consensus is that particles do radiate in a gravity field" was based on nothing but the assumption that GR is valid and is not supported by any evidence.

You said that experimental evidence violates the predictions of GR because we do not see braking radiation emanating from charged objects on the Earth's surface. You need two things for that. One, you need to show the amount of braking radiation predicted by GR by a 9.8m/s^2 acceleration. Two, you need to provide experimental data showing that that amount of radiation is not being produced.

You haven't come out with either. However, Reality Check was nice enough to cite papers where they have worked out the math. The papers show that GR predicts the amount of braking radiation would be undetectable. Since none has been detected, experimental data matches theory.

Now you are switching gears somehow and saying that its incorrect for GR to make predictions because the predictions are predicated on GR being valid? What else is a theory good for?

There is no evidence for an abaolute frame but you quickly conclude it doesn't exist beause Einstien saids so?

Because every experiment done to date has not been able to find any difference in the laws of physics between inertial reference frames. No other physical theory to date has been as successful at explaining this data and simply formed as SR.

If there is an absolute frame of reference and motion relative to that absolute frame of reference causes effects, then those effects should be measurable. In fact, with the claims you have been making, it'd be very easily measurable. Please provide an experiment that determines motion relative to an absolute reference frame.

But when there is no eveidence for supporting a predction of relativity you quickly conclude it must be so.

Again, you claimed that a lack of observation of an event violated GR. Reality Check pointed out that GR predicts exactly what is being observed. What is the problem?
 
Put very simply he claims you can pick any frame of reference and do a comparison.

But if you have three clocks "A", "B" & "C" all at common rest and then accelerate "A" & "B" away from "C" in opposite direction under equal conditions. i.e. - .2c each then relative to "C" "A" & "B" both have a dilated tick rate of 0.97979 compared to "C". However "A" & "B" remain in synch even though they have a relative velocity between themselves.

SR doesn't predict this. The rest frames of "A", "B", and "C" are all different. If we pick an inertial reference frame where "A" is at rest, then "B" is moving away at .2c, and "C" is moving away at 0.29c.

In the inertial rest frame where "A" is at rest, B's can be observed to tick slower that A's, and C's clock can be observed to tick slower that B's.

Now if you launch "A" & "B" in a co-moving vector under the same accelerations the results are identical even though there is no relative velocity between "A" & "B".

Again, they aren't identical as I've shown above.

It becomes obvious that all dilation is a function of relative velocity to an inertial rest frame and not just to anyother frame.

Only if you incorrectly apply SR. If what you say is true about relativistically moving objects, then it would be easy to design an experiment to show that and stand physics on its head.

You can compute from frame to frame but you MUST pass through respective rest frames to get there.

Why? and can you please define "respective rest frame"?
 
Stuff it. Of course units are important but ony when they are required. They were not required.

Can you please provide us with a set of rules to follow when dropping units so that we can do it consistently and understand how you have come to the conclusion that they can be dropped in this case? If you don't have a set of rules, than it is completely arbitrary.
 
SR doesn't predict this. The rest frames of "A", "B", and "C" are all different. If we pick an inertial reference frame where "A" is at rest, then "B" is moving away at .2c, and "C" is moving away at 0.29c.

In the inertial rest frame where "A" is at rest, B's can be observed to tick slower that A's, and C's clock can be observed to tick slower that B's.

How soon we forget or should I just be honest and point out you continue to IGNORE the fact that I don't care what you "Observe" while in motion. I only care about what turns up as permanent dialtion once clocks are compared in a common rest frame after having had relative velocity.
 
How soon we forget or should I just be honest and point out you continue to IGNORE the fact that I don't care what you "Observe" while in motion. I only care about what turns up as permanent dialtion once clocks are compared in a common rest frame after having had relative velocity.

You don't need to return the clocks all back to the same location. They can send signals to each other. Also, you seem to think that being "in motion" is somehow special. Can you please tell me how I can tell if I am in motion?
 
You don't need to return the clocks all back to the same location. They can send signals to each other. Also, you seem to think that being "in motion" is somehow special. Can you please tell me how I can tell if I am in motion?
Of course everybody knows that but it is far more clear and less arguable to simply return them for direct comparison. But then that would leaqve you without some negative comment in every post wouldn't it.
 
Of course everybody knows that but it is far more clear and less arguable to simply return them for direct comparison. But then that would leaqve you without some negative comment in every post wouldn't it.
Are you saying that a genius like you cannot answer his question :rolleyes: ?
(yet another negative comment!)
 
Of course everybody knows that but it is far more clear and less arguable to simply return them for direct comparison. But then that would leaqve you without some negative comment in every post wouldn't it.

You want to only consider problems in relativity where all objects start at rest with each, and all objects end at rest with each other in the same inertial reference frame that they started in. You can then claim that that frame of reference is somehow special.

Any other experiment clearly shows that there can be no special inertial frame, that is why you would like to avoid it. You keep demanding that all measurements be done from some special inertial frame, but have provided no method for determining motion relative to that frame.
 
You want to only consider problems in relativity where all objects start at rest with each, and all objects end at rest with each other in the same inertial reference frame that they started in. You can then claim that that frame of reference is somehow special.

Any other experiment clearly shows that there can be no special inertial frame, that is why you would like to avoid it. You keep demanding that all measurements be done from some special inertial frame, but have provided no method for determining motion relative to that frame.

Please post just one case where you have emperical data from two moving objects with unknown velocity histories where you have predicted and gathered supporting data as to the time dilated status of each. Of course you don't.

The only valid data is from known starting points or histories.

The bottom line after all the huff and puff of you guys is that there has not been one case of emperical data to support lorentz contraction.

LC is nothing but a mathematical artifact creted by switching time standards between frames.

1 - You assert a clock is dilated relative to another clock in another frame.

2 - You then go to the dilated frame and claim relative velocity is the same and since time recorded for a trip is less distance must have changed.

3 - Absolute nonsense at the most obvious and basic level. If the clock is dilated relative to the other then it is dilated in it's own frame relative to the other (one need not be able to sense or measure such dilation) just the fact is that it IS dilated and remains dilated means the trip time is properly accounted for only if distance does not change and the dilated observer "computes" a different velocity for the trip.
 
What's really annoying is that I cannot conceive of anything we could all say that would shut him up. I can't even lie and says he's right because I have no idea what he's trying to say, much less convince him he's wrong.
 
What's really annoying is that I cannot conceive of anything we could all say that would shut him up. I can't even lie and says he's right because I have no idea what he's trying to say, much less convince him he's wrong.

Amazing. Truely amazing. One cannot concieve that something physical is actually physical (clock tick rate) and doesn't change just because you switch views.
 
Amazing. Truely amazing. One cannot concieve that something physical is actually physical (clock tick rate) and doesn't change just because you switch views.

Truth is, Mac, what you wrote sounds a lot like what someone might write to parody you, spelling mistakes and all. I'm sure in your mind that it has some great meaning for you. As for me, well, it makes very little sense.

I'm a layman of above average intelligence. I'm not stuck in any "dogma" at all. I've read every post by you. Not only haven't you convinced me of anything, I still don't know what it is you're trying to convince me of.

Yeh, yeh. It's not your fault.
 
Please post just one case where you have emperical data from two moving objects with unknown velocity histories where you have predicted and gathered supporting data as to the time dilated status of each. Of course you don't.

Are you saying that if one experimenter observes an object, but does not know where it comes from, that counts. But if another knows, that doesn't count? Your velocity history thing is so full of holes anyway. You demand that GPS calculations must be done from an earth centric reference frame. Why? Presumably because they were launched from earth, I'm not really sure, you haven't stated by what logic you choose reference frames. If the satellite was built on mars, instead of earth and then transported from mars to earth it would supposedly behave differently. Course, its actually the Cesium in the atomic clock of the satellite that we are measuring. Where does the Cesium come from? Its naturally occurring. So it was produced in the core of a star. So, from your logic, we would need to know the velocity vector of the star where the cesium was produced. But the velocity vector of the star changes over time, and the cesium we utilize probably comes from many, many different stars, so each atom of cesium should behave differently since it has a different velocity history. Do we also need the velocity history of the lighter elements that fused to produce the cesium?

You are demanding empirical evidence from everyone else for a set of theories that have boatloads of empirical evidence. Clearly, you think that there is some experiment that can be carried out for which the results will not match current theory. You have been unable to not only provide an example of such an experiment, but also unable to predict what the outcome will be.

The only valid data is from known starting points or histories.

I'm really confounded by this statement, what are you trying to say.

The bottom line after all the huff and puff of you guys is that there has not been one case of emperical data to support lorentz contraction.

Lorentz contraction is required to make SR consistent, without it, there is no SR. Its also necessary for our current laws of electricity and magnetism. Both theories are highly successful. Lorentz contraction calculations are used for things as mundane as the design of a cathode ray tube and as complex as a particle accelerator. The use of Lorentz contraction to date has been to make calculations based from the inertial reference frame of a particle. We just don't yet have the power to macroscopic objects to relativistic speeds.

The crux is that length contraction and time dilation are both required for a consistent theory that includes matches all our current observations regarding both the speed of light and its invariance, and the effects of relative velocity of near light speed.

Do you seriously have a problem with a theory because it predicts something we cannot yet measure? That just seems silly, as any alternate theory that specifically does not include lorentz contraction would be equally unmeasurable in that respect and would thus be on equal footing.

LC is nothing but a mathematical artifact creted by switching time standards between frames.

There is no such thing as a "time standard".

1 - You assert a clock is dilated relative to another clock in another frame.

There are actually only two postulates of SR:

# The Principle of Relativity – The laws by which the states of physical systems undergo change are not affected, whether these changes of state be referred to the one or the other of two systems in uniform translatory motion relative to each other.
# The Principle of Invariant Light Speed – Light in vacuum propagates with the speed c (a fixed constant) in terms of any system of inertial coordinates, regardless of the state of motion of the light source

Everything else is derived from these two simple principles. Its quite elegant actually. All of your disagreement seems to flow from the first postulate, although, since experiments dealing with the invariance of the speed of light throw a bit of a wrench in your disagreement, you also must disagree with the second postulate. I've already explained how a simple experiment disproves your theory of different observers seeing different photons. You try that experiment yourself yet?

Ok, so back to your time dilation. Time dilation is not an assertion of special relativity, but a consequence of the postulates. Your description is also not quite accurate, the clocks traveling at relative velocities are more accurately measuring time differently. Each will view the other as ticking more slowly.

2 - You then go to the dilated frame and claim relative velocity is the same and since time recorded for a trip is less distance must have changed.

There is no such thing as the "dilated frame". Also, you do not "go" to a frame. You describe the situation or perform calculations from a particular inertial frame of reference. You are also claiming here that lorentz contraction is a consequence of time dilation. Not true, its a direct consequence of the first two postulates of SR. This can easily be shown with a thought experiment involving two mirrors and a photon bouncing between them.

3 - Absolute nonsense at the most obvious and basic level. If the clock is dilated relative to the other then it is dilated in it's own frame relative to the other (one need not be able to sense or measure such dilation) just the fact is that it IS dilated and remains dilated means the trip time is properly accounted for only if distance does not change and the dilated observer "computes" a different velocity for the trip.

Your claims stem from a rejection of both postulates of SR. You somehow concentrate on the things that flow from the postulates rather than the postulates themselves. You claim above in (3) that if A is moving relative to B, that A will observe B's clock ticking slower, and B will observe A's clock ticking slower. From this, it must follow that A can observe clocks moving at many velocity vectors relative to itself. Finding any clock that ticks faster indicates that A is not in a preferred inertial frame of reference. We can then find the clock that ticks faster than all other clocks. This clock is in the preferred inertial reference frame. All motion must be measured relative to this master inertial reference frame.

Earth orbits the sun and also rotates about its axis. Any experimenter on the earth is therefore highly unlikely to find him or herself traveling with no motion relative to the master inertial reference frame. If the experimenter is moving with some velocity V relative to the master inertial reference frame, then by sending out a particles in several different directions, some would travel with a velocity relative to the master inertial reference frame different than that of the experimenter. Therefore, even though the particles would be observed by the experimenter as traveling at the same speed relative to himself, they would decay at different rates as they are all traveling at different speeds relative to the master inertial reference frame.

As experimenters regularly produce particles with limited lifetimes and measure those lifetimes by distance and time traveled before decay. If there were differences in lifetime based on direction traveled, it'd be very easily detectable. No such detection has ever been made. Jets have also been flown in opposite directions around the world with atomic clocks and compared with an atomic clock on the ground. If their direction of travel effected their degree of time dilation, it would have been detected.

You have yet to provide us with any of the below:

* Experimental evidence that shows that the first postulate of SR is incorrect
* Experimental evidence that shows that the second postulate of SR is incorrect
* Experimental evidence that shows that time dilation as described by SR is incorrect
* Experimental evidence that shows that length contraction as described by SR is incorrect
* Experimental evidence that shows that the mass-energy relation predicted by SR is incorrect
* A substitute theory who's predictions match current experimental data and either makes different predictions than SR, or is somehow simpler.
 

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